Question 1

How many primers are used in PCR ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: c- two PCR amplification requires a forward primer and a reverse primer that anneal to opposite DNA strands flanking the target sequence. DNA polymerase extends from each primer’s 3′ end, producing exponential amplification through repeated cycles. Using fewer than two primers would not enable amplification of a defined double-stranded target region, while additional primers are not required for standard PCR.
Category reason: This question tests a core concept in PCR methodology used to detect/amplify microbial genetic material, which fits best under Microbiology rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 2

TB is diagnosed primarily by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pulmonary tuberculosis is primarily confirmed by detecting Mycobacterium tuberculosis from respiratory specimens. Sputum testing (smear microscopy for acid-fast bacilli, culture, and/or nucleic acid amplification tests) directly assesses the organism and provides definitive microbiologic evidence. Blood and urine tests are not primary diagnostic methods for routine pulmonary TB, and ECG is unrelated to diagnosing TB.
Category reason: This question tests the core laboratory method used to identify an infectious pathogen (TB) from clinical specimens, which aligns best with Microbiology rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 3

Which of the following diseases is caused by a protozoa?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: C. Malaria Malaria is caused by Plasmodium species, which are protozoan parasites transmitted by Anopheles mosquitoes. In contrast, tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis (a bacterium), typhoid by Salmonella Typhi (a bacterium), and measles by the measles virus. Therefore, only malaria among the options is protozoal in etiology.
Category reason: This question tests identification of infectious disease causative organisms (protozoa vs bacteria vs virus), which is a core topic in Microbiology.

Question 4

Which method of transmission is common to contact AIDS?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: HIV is commonly transmitted through unprotected sexual exposure to infected genital secretions and blood via mucous membranes. This is a primary route of person-to-person transmission worldwide, especially with receptive anal or vaginal intercourse. While needle sharing and transfusion can transmit HIV, transfusion is now rare in settings with screened blood supplies, and “body fluids” is imprecise because not all body fluids (e.g., saliva, sweat) transmit HIV.
Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of how HIV spreads between hosts, which is a core topic in microbiology/infectious disease transmission rather than nursing care prioritization or interventions.

Question 5

First step in control of communicable disease is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: D. Surveillance. Communicable disease control begins with recognizing and measuring the problem through systematic case detection and monitoring of incidence and distribution. Surveillance provides the data needed to identify outbreaks early, determine transmission patterns, and guide targeted interventions such as isolation, prophylaxis, immunization, and environmental control. Without surveillance, notification and treatment occur inconsistently and prevention efforts cannot be accurately planned or evaluated.
Category reason: This question tests foundational public health microbiology concepts about how communicable diseases are monitored and controlled at the population level, which fits Microbiology rather than bedside nursing interventions.

Question 6

Mode of spread of whooping cough:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: B) Droplet Infection. Bordetella pertussis spreads primarily via respiratory droplets expelled during coughing, sneezing, or close face-to-face contact. Transmission is highest in the catarrhal and early paroxysmal phases when bacterial load and coughing are prominent. Fomite and waterborne spread are not typical for pertussis because the organism does not survive well in the environment and requires inhalation of infectious droplets.
Category reason: This question tests the mechanism of transmission of an infectious agent, which is a core topic in Microbiology.

Question 7

The time interval between the invasion of agent and appearance of first sign of the disease:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This describes the interval from pathogen entry/exposure until the first clinical manifestations appear. It is a standard epidemiologic and infectious-disease concept used to understand timing of symptom onset and to guide quarantine/contact tracing windows. The other periods refer to stages of illness course or spread dynamics rather than the pre-symptomatic interval after invasion.
Category reason: This question tests foundational terminology about infectious disease timing (incubation vs other periods), which is part of Microbiology and epidemiology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision.

Question 8

Which skin test is useful for diagnosis of Hydatid Disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hydatid disease is caused by Echinococcus granulosus, and the classic historical intradermal test associated with this infection is the Casoni test, which assesses immediate hypersensitivity to hydatid fluid antigens. While it is largely obsolete due to variable sensitivity/specificity and risk of allergic reactions, it remains the named skin test for hydatid disease in exam contexts. The other tests correspond to different pathogens/toxins: Dick for scarlet fever (erythrogenic toxin), Schick for diphtheria susceptibility, and tuberculin for tuberculosis.
Category reason: This is testing identification of a diagnostic skin test for a specific parasitic infection, which is core infectious disease/immunodiagnostic knowledge within Microbiology rather than nursing intervention or prioritization.

Question 9

Bacteria which contain chlorophyll?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: c- Photosynthetic bacteria These organisms possess photosynthetic pigments (including chlorophyll or bacteriochlorophyll) that allow them to capture light energy and drive photosynthesis. Heterotrophic bacteria do not use light as an energy source and therefore typically lack chlorophyll-based photosystems. While some autotrophs are photosynthetic, many autotrophs are chemoautotrophs and do not contain chlorophyll, making the photosynthetic category the most precise.
Category reason: This question tests basic microbial classification based on presence of photosynthetic pigments, which is a foundational Microbiology concept rather than a nursing-care decision.

Question 10

Trichophyton is one of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Trichophyton species are dermatophytes—keratinophilic fungi that infect skin, hair, and nails, producing tinea (ringworm) infections. Dermatophytes characteristically invade stratum corneum and other keratinized tissues rather than causing deep systemic disease in immunocompetent hosts. Yeasts (e.g., Candida), non-dermatophyte molds, and older groupings like “Torula” do not best classify Trichophyton.
Category reason: This question tests classification of fungi (organism type and grouping), which is core content in Microbiology rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 11

Plasotomy is one of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This item tests classification of fungi based on morphology and growth forms. Organisms referred to as dimorphic fungi exist in two forms depending on environmental conditions, typically mould in the environment and yeast-like forms in host tissues. This property is used in medical microbiology to categorize and anticipate typical presentation and laboratory identification features. The other options are broader fungal morphologic groups that do not capture the defining two-form characteristic.
Category reason: This question asks for microbiologic classification of an organism into a fungal group, which is foundational biomedical knowledge within Microbiology rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 12

Color of gram negative bacteria is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Gram-negative bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan layer and an outer membrane, so they do not retain the crystal violet-iodine complex after decolorization with alcohol/acetone. They take up the counterstain (typically safranin) and therefore appear pink to red on Gram stain. In contrast, gram-positive organisms retain crystal violet and appear purple/violet.
Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of Gram staining outcomes and bacterial cell wall structure, which is part of Microbiology.

Question 13

Acid Fast Bacteria

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Acid-fastness is due to a lipid-rich cell wall containing mycolic acids, which retains carbol fuchsin dye despite acid-alcohol decolorization (Ziehl–Neelsen/Kinyoun stains). Mycobacterium species characteristically demonstrate this property, making them classic acid-fast organisms. Salmonella, Shigella, and E. coli are Gram-negative bacilli and do not have mycolic-acid cell walls, so they are not acid-fast.
Category reason: This question tests identification of an organism based on staining characteristics (acid-fast), which is a core topic in microbiology rather than patient-care decision-making.

Question 14

Spherical or ovoid cells occurring in chains

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Streptococci are cocci (spherical to ovoid bacteria) that characteristically arrange in chains due to division in a single plane with daughter cells remaining attached. In contrast, staphylococci form grape-like clusters, lactobacilli are rod-shaped, and spirochaetes are spiral-shaped organisms. The morphology and arrangement are classic microbiology descriptors used for preliminary organism identification.
Category reason: This question tests bacterial morphology and arrangement (cocci in chains), which is a foundational concept in Microbiology rather than a nursing intervention or patient-care decision.

Question 15

The causative organism of typhoid fever is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Typhoid fever is a systemic enteric infection caused by Salmonella enterica serovar Typhi, transmitted via the fecal–oral route through contaminated food or water. It invades intestinal lymphoid tissue and disseminates hematogenously, producing prolonged fever and possible complications such as intestinal perforation. Vibrio cholerae causes cholera with profuse watery diarrhea, Shigella causes bacillary dysentery, and most E. coli strains cause gastroenteritis or extraintestinal infections rather than classic typhoid.
Category reason: This question tests identification of the bacterial pathogen responsible for a specific infectious disease, which is a core Microbiology concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 16

A young child named Richard is suspected of having pinworms. The community nurse collects a stool specimen to confirm the diagnosis. The nurse should schedule the collection of this specimen?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pinworm (Enterobius vermicularis) eggs are typically deposited on the perianal skin at night, so the best time to collect a specimen is in the early morning before the child bathes or has a bowel movement that could remove eggs. Collecting later in the day or after bathing decreases the chance of detecting eggs and increases false-negative results. Therefore, scheduling collection in the morning maximizes diagnostic yield.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of the life cycle and specimen collection timing for a parasitic infection (pinworms), which is primarily a microbiology/parasitology concept rather than a nursing judgment prioritization scenario.

Question 17

Which infection is commonly spread through contaminated water?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: B. Hepatitis A It is transmitted primarily by the fecal–oral route, so ingestion of contaminated water (or food) is a common mode of spread, especially where sanitation is poor. HIV is spread via blood and sexual exposure, syphilis is primarily sexually transmitted, and tuberculosis is spread by airborne droplet nuclei rather than water. Therefore the waterborne infection among the options is the one listed.
Category reason: This item tests knowledge of infectious disease transmission routes (waterborne vs bloodborne, sexual, airborne), which falls under Microbiology rather than nursing care prioritization or interventions.

Question 18

Which method is used for sterilizing surgical instruments?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Steam under pressure reliably destroys all forms of microbial life, including bacterial spores, which is required for true sterilization of surgical instruments. Boiling and pasteurization reduce microbial load but do not consistently eliminate spores, so they are disinfection methods rather than sterilization. Antiseptics are intended for use on living tissue and are not appropriate for sterilizing instruments.
Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of microbial control methods and which techniques achieve sterilization versus disinfection, which fits Microbiology rather than a nursing decision-making scenario.

Question 19

Widal test is done for diagnosis of ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Widal testing detects agglutinating antibodies (O and H) against Salmonella antigens and is classically associated with enteric (typhoid/paratyphoid) fever. It is therefore used in the diagnostic workup of suspected Salmonella Typhi/Paratyphi infections, especially in settings where culture is less available. While the test has limitations (cross-reactivity and need for paired titers), among the options it most directly corresponds to Salmonella.
Category reason: This question tests identification of a diagnostic serologic test and the pathogen it targets, which is a core concept in microbiology.

Question 20

The causative agent of enteric fever:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: a- salmonella Enteric (typhoid) fever is classically caused by Salmonella enterica serovar Typhi, and can also be caused by Salmonella Paratyphi. Shigella more typically causes bacillary dysentery with inflammatory diarrhea, and Klebsiella is commonly associated with pneumonia, UTIs, and certain healthcare-associated infections. Therefore, Salmonella is the best match for the etiologic agent of enteric fever.
Category reason: This question tests identification of the infectious organism responsible for a named disease, which is a core topic in Microbiology rather than nursing judgment or patient-care prioritization.

Question 21

The most common cause of urinary tract infection :

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: E-coli Most uncomplicated UTIs are caused by uropathogenic bacteria ascending from the intestinal flora, and Escherichia coli is responsible for the majority of community-acquired cases. It has adhesins (fimbriae) that facilitate attachment to uroepithelial cells, increasing the likelihood of colonization and infection. Salmonella and Shigella more commonly cause gastrointestinal infections, and streptococci are less frequent UTI pathogens compared with E. coli.
Category reason: This asks for the predominant causative organism of a common infection, which is core pathogen/etiology knowledge classified under Microbiology rather than nursing intervention decision-making.

Question 22

An important cause of diarrhea in infant:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: E.coli Enteropathogenic and enterotoxigenic strains are among the most common bacterial causes of acute infectious diarrhea in infants, especially in settings with contaminated food or water and immature immunity. These organisms can adhere to intestinal mucosa and/or produce toxins that increase secretion, leading to watery stools and dehydration risk. While Salmonella and Shigella can also cause pediatric diarrhea, they are generally less common causes in infants compared with pathogenic E. coli and more often associated with invasive disease. Staphylococcus is not a typical primary cause of infant infectious diarrhea in the way enteric gram-negative pathogens are.
Category reason: This question tests etiologic organisms causing infant diarrhea, which is a foundational infectious-disease identification topic within microbiology rather than a nursing care/priority decision.

Question 23

TCB5 is the selective media for isolation of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: TCBS (thiosulfate–citrate–bile salts–sucrose) agar is a selective and differential medium designed to isolate Vibrio species from stool and other specimens while inhibiting many enteric bacteria. Vibrio cholerae grows well on TCBS and typically ferments sucrose, producing yellow colonies. E. coli is inhibited by the bile salts and high pH, and H. pylori and H. influenza require different enriched media and growth conditions.
Category reason: This item tests knowledge of culture media used to isolate specific bacteria, which is a core Microbiology concept rather than a nursing-care decision.

Question 24

How many percent of measles are prevented by immunization at 9 months of age?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: At 9 months, maternal measles antibodies can still be present and may partially neutralize the vaccine virus, reducing seroconversion compared with vaccination at 12 months. Because of this interference, the protective efficacy is lower at 9 months and classically cited around ~80–85%. Higher percentages (90–99%) are more consistent with vaccination at older ages or after completion of recommended doses, not a single dose at 9 months. Therefore, 80% is the best estimate among the choices.
Category reason: This asks about vaccine effectiveness at a specific age, which is foundational immunization/communicable disease knowledge rather than a nursing care decision, fitting Microbiology.

Question 25

Which method is commonly used for household water purification in emergencies?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It is widely recommended for emergency household water treatment because it reliably inactivates most disease-causing microorganisms (bacteria, viruses, and protozoa) without special equipment. It is practical and fast compared with reverse osmosis or distillation, which require specific devices and energy/time. Sand filtration can reduce turbidity and some microbes but is not consistently sufficient for disinfection on its own.
Category reason: This question tests a basic method of preventing waterborne infectious disease via disinfection, which aligns best with Microbiology rather than nursing care prioritization or interventions for a specific patient scenario.

Question 26

The most sensitive indicator of recent fecal pollution of water is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: E. coli It is a normal inhabitant of the intestinal tract of humans and other warm-blooded animals, so its presence in water strongly correlates with recent fecal contamination. It survives long enough to be detected while generally not multiplying significantly in clean water, making it a reliable indicator organism. Total bacterial count is nonspecific, and organisms like Pseudomonas can originate from soil/water environments unrelated to fecal sources. Salmonella may be present in feces but is less consistently found and is harder to detect routinely, so it is not the most sensitive indicator.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of indicator organisms used to detect fecal contamination in water, which is a core concept in microbiology and environmental health.

Question 27

Most common cause of diarrhea in children under five years is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: C. Rotavirus Rotavirus is historically the leading cause of acute gastroenteritis with severe diarrhea in children under 5 years worldwide, especially prior to widespread vaccination. It spreads via the fecal–oral route and commonly causes vomiting and watery diarrhea that can rapidly lead to dehydration. Bacterial causes like E. coli, Shigella, and Salmonella can cause diarrhea but are not the most common overall etiology in this age group in standard exam epidemiology.
Category reason: This is primarily testing the common infectious etiologies of pediatric diarrhea and identifying the predominant pathogen, which is core microbiology content rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 28

Which of the following is not a mode of transmission of HIV?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: HIV is transmitted through specific body fluids (blood, semen, vaginal/rectal fluids, and breast milk) when they enter the bloodstream or contact mucous membranes. Casual contact like touching intact skin does not provide a route for viral entry and does not involve infectious fluids. In contrast, blood transfusion, needle sharing, and unprotected sexual intercourse can directly expose a person to infectious fluids and are established transmission routes.
Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of how an infectious agent (HIV) spreads between people, which is primarily taught under microbiology/infectious disease transmission rather than nursing interventions.

Question 29

Which infection is prevented by DPT vaccine?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: DPT is a combination vaccine designed to induce immunity against Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Bordetella pertussis, and Clostridium tetani. It does not include antigens for poliovirus (covered by IPV/OPV) or for enteric pathogens causing typhoid or diarrhea. Pneumonia is not a specific DPT target; pneumococcal and Hib vaccines address common bacterial causes of pneumonia.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of what pathogens a specific vaccine protects against, which is primarily foundational infectious disease/immunization content rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 30

Which is an example of a vector-borne disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Vector-borne diseases are transmitted to humans via an intermediate organism such as a mosquito, tick, or fly. Malaria is caused by Plasmodium species and is transmitted by the bite of the female Anopheles mosquito. Typhoid and cholera are typically transmitted via contaminated food or water (fecal–oral route). Hepatitis is most commonly spread through blood/body fluids (e.g., sexual contact, needles) or fecal–oral route depending on the virus type, not via an insect vector.
Category reason: This item tests the mode of transmission of infectious diseases (vector-borne vs fecal–oral/bloodborne), which is foundational microbiology/infectious disease knowledge rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 31

Which of the following is a key feature of pneumonic plague?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pneumonic plague involves primary infection of the lungs, enabling respiratory spread through infectious droplets during coughing or close contact. This distinguishes it from bubonic plague, which is typically transmitted by flea bites from rodents. Because it is an acute, severe infection, it is not characterized as a chronic illness, and it is not limited to rat-only transmission.
Category reason: This question tests the transmission characteristics of an infectious disease (Yersinia pestis) and differentiates clinical forms based on microbiologic spread, which falls under Microbiology rather than nursing-care decision making.

Question 32

The natural reservoir of Yersinia pestis is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Yersinia pestis is maintained in nature in rodent reservoirs, with rats classically implicated in endemic and epidemic transmission. Fleas feeding on infected rodents can acquire the organism and subsequently transmit it to humans via bites. Dogs, cattle, and monkeys are not typical natural reservoirs sustaining the enzootic cycle.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of an infectious organism’s reservoir and transmission cycle, which is a core topic in Microbiology rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 33

The Bacillus Calmette–Guérin (BCG) vaccine is given primarily to protect against which form of TB?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: C. Miliary TB and TB meningitis BCG is most effective at preventing severe disseminated tuberculosis in children, particularly miliary TB and tuberculous meningitis. Its protection against adult pulmonary TB is variable and generally limited. It does not specifically prevent MDR-TB, and it is not targeted primarily at osteoarticular (spinal) TB.
Category reason: This is a vaccine-specific question about prevention of particular clinical forms of tuberculosis, which is a microbiology/immunization knowledge focus rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 34

What is the causative agent of tuberculosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Tuberculosis is caused by an acid-fast bacillus transmitted primarily via airborne droplet nuclei that can remain suspended and be inhaled into the lungs. The organism’s lipid-rich cell wall (mycolic acids) enables persistence in macrophages and promotes granuloma formation with potential latency and later reactivation. The other options cause different infections: anthrax (B. anthracis), typhoid fever (S. typhi), and typical community-acquired pneumonia (S. pneumoniae).
Category reason: This item tests identification of the pathogen responsible for an infectious disease, which is a core Microbiology concept rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 35

Which infection is most commonly transmitted by needle stick injury?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Needlestick transmission risk is highest for hepatitis B virus because it is highly infectious and can be present in high titers in blood. The estimated percutaneous transmission risk is greatest for HBV (especially if the source is HBeAg-positive), higher than HCV and much higher than HIV. Vaccination and post-exposure prophylaxis markedly reduce occupational HBV transmission. Syphilis is not a common needlestick-transmitted infection compared with bloodborne viruses.
Category reason: This question tests comparative infectious transmissibility of bloodborne pathogens after percutaneous exposure, which is a foundational microbiology/infectious disease concept rather than a nursing action or prioritization scenario.

Question 36

Which hepatitis virus is associated with high mortality in pregnant women?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hepatitis E infection is classically associated with severe disease and markedly increased risk of fulminant hepatic failure during pregnancy, especially in the third trimester, leading to higher maternal mortality. This is a well-known epidemiologic feature of HEV compared with HAV, HBV, and HCV, which generally do not show the same pregnancy-specific mortality spike. Therefore, among the listed viruses, it is the one most strongly linked to high mortality in pregnant patients.
Category reason: This question tests organism-specific clinical epidemiology of hepatitis viruses and their risk profiles in pregnancy, which is a foundational infectious disease/microbiology knowledge domain rather than a nursing intervention scenario.

Question 37

Oral rehydration therapy (ORS) is the cornerstone of treatment in?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Massive secretory diarrhea causes rapid dehydration and electrolyte loss, making prompt fluid replacement the primary life-saving intervention. ORS leverages glucose-sodium co-transport to enhance intestinal absorption of water and sodium even during ongoing diarrhea. Antibiotics can reduce stool volume and duration, but rehydration is the essential cornerstone. In typhoid, malaria, and hepatitis B, management is not primarily based on ORS as the central definitive therapy.
Category reason: This question tests infectious-disease management principles for a specific pathogen-associated syndrome (secretory diarrhea), which is primarily studied within microbiology and communicable diseases rather than nursing judgment tasks.

Question 38

The characteristic "rice water stools" are seen in which disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Vibrio cholerae causes a profuse secretory diarrhea due to cholera toxin–mediated activation of adenylate cyclase in enterocytes, leading to massive chloride and water efflux into the intestinal lumen. The stool becomes watery with flecks of mucus, classically described as “rice-water.” This presentation is typically associated with rapid dehydration, hypotension, and electrolyte losses. The other options do not characteristically produce this specific stool description.
Category reason: This is a pathogen-to-clinical-feature association (Vibrio cholerae causing rice-water stools), which is primarily studied under Microbiology rather than nursing intervention/priority setting.

Question 39

Which is the gold standard test for diagnosis of typhoid fever?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Isolation of Salmonella enterica serovar Typhi from blood provides definitive microbiologic evidence of infection, especially early in the first week when bacteremia is most likely. Serologic tests like Widal and rapid antibody assays (e.g., Typhidot) have variable sensitivity/specificity and can be confounded by prior infection, vaccination, or cross-reactivity. Stool culture may become positive later and can reflect carriage rather than acute disease, making it less reliable as the primary confirmatory test.
Category reason: This question tests identification of the definitive laboratory method to diagnose an infectious disease, which is a core concept in microbiology and diagnostic bacteriology rather than nursing decision-making.

Question 40

What is the incubation period of typhoid fever?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Typhoid fever (Salmonella enterica serovar Typhi) typically has an incubation period of about 6–30 days, with many references citing around 7–14 days as the common/typical range. This reflects the time required for bacterial invasion of intestinal lymphoid tissue, bacteremia, and systemic dissemination before classic symptoms develop. Shorter incubation periods are more characteristic of toxin-mediated foodborne illness, while very prolonged fixed ranges are less representative of the usual presentation.
Category reason: This item tests knowledge of an infectious disease’s incubation period, which is a core microbiology concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision.

Question 41

Which vaccine is used for prevention of typhoid in the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: C. Tybar-TCV (Typhoid Conjugate Vaccine) UIP typhoid prevention uses a typhoid conjugate vaccine because conjugation improves immunogenicity in young children and produces longer-lasting, booster-responsive immunity compared with polysaccharide vaccines. Vi polysaccharide products (e.g., Typhim Vi) are less effective in children under 2 years and do not generate strong immunologic memory. Live oral Ty21a has age and dosing limitations and is not the routine UIP choice. Older TAB vaccine is associated with higher reactogenicity and inferior effectiveness, so it is not recommended for UIP use.
Category reason: This asks which specific vaccine formulation is used in a national immunization program, testing organism-specific vaccination knowledge within microbiology/immunization rather than nursing care decisions.

Question 42

Which hepatitis virus is most commonly transmitted via the fecal-oral route?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: HAV is classically spread by the fecal–oral route, often through contaminated food or water and close contact in settings with poor sanitation. In contrast, HBV and HCV are primarily bloodborne (parenteral/sexual/perinatal transmission). HDV requires co-infection with HBV and follows the same bloodborne transmission patterns rather than fecal–oral spread.
Category reason: This tests pathogen transmission routes for viral hepatitis, which is foundational infectious disease knowledge covered under Microbiology rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 43

Dengue virus belongs to which of the following families?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: B. Flaviviridae Dengue virus is an arthropod-borne virus (arbovirus) classified in the genus Flavivirus. Members of this family are enveloped, single-stranded positive-sense RNA viruses and include other important pathogens such as yellow fever and Zika viruses. The other listed families contain different RNA virus groups (e.g., paramyxoviruses like measles, togaviruses like rubella/alphaviruses, and retroviruses like HIV).
Category reason: This question tests viral taxonomy and classification, which is a core topic in Microbiology rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 44

What is the vector for transmission of dengue fever?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dengue virus is primarily transmitted to humans by infected female Aedes mosquitoes, especially the day-biting Aedes species. This vector thrives in urban environments and breeds in clean, stagnant water found in containers around homes. By contrast, Anopheles is linked to malaria transmission, Culex to diseases like filariasis/West Nile, and Phlebotomus (sandfly) to leishmaniasis.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of infectious disease transmission vectors (which organism transmits a specific virus), a core topic in microbiology rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 45

Dengue hemorrhagic fever is most commonly due to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: C. Secondary infection with a different serotype Severe dengue (including dengue hemorrhagic fever) most often occurs during a subsequent dengue infection with a different serotype due to antibody-dependent enhancement, where non-neutralizing antibodies facilitate viral entry into host cells. This leads to higher viremia, an exaggerated immune response, and increased capillary permeability. The resulting plasma leakage and coagulopathy drive hemorrhagic manifestations and shock risk. Primary infection is more commonly mild or uncomplicated.
Category reason: This question tests the infectious disease mechanism and immunopathogenesis of severe dengue, which falls under Microbiology rather than nursing care prioritization.

Question 46

Which diagnostic test helps in detecting both M. tuberculosis and resistance to rifampicin?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: CBNAAT (cartridge-based nucleic acid amplification test, e.g., Xpert MTB/RIF) detects M. tuberculosis DNA and simultaneously identifies mutations associated with rifampicin resistance. It provides rapid results compared with culture and is recommended for early detection of TB and drug resistance. Sputum culture detects organism growth but does not rapidly provide rifampicin resistance without additional drug-susceptibility testing. Mantoux test only indicates immune sensitization and cannot identify active TB or drug resistance.
Category reason: This is a laboratory microbiology diagnostics question focusing on tests that detect M. tuberculosis and rifampicin resistance, which belongs to Microbiology rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 47

Viruses:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Viruses have a single type of nucleic acid genome—either DNA or RNA—enclosed in a protein capsid (sometimes with a lipid envelope). They lack ribosomes and other metabolic machinery, so they must use the host cell’s ribosomes to synthesize viral proteins. Antibiotics target bacterial structures/processes (e.g., cell wall synthesis, bacterial ribosomes), so they do not treat viral infections, but this property is less defining than the genome composition.
Category reason: This question tests foundational characteristics of viruses (genetic material and cellular structures), which is core Microbiology knowledge rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 48

All of these are essential structure except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Essential bacterial structures needed for basic survival and reproduction include the plasma membrane, a nucleoid region (nuclear body), and typically a cell wall for shape and protection. Spores are not required for routine cellular function; they are specialized, dormant survival forms produced only by certain bacteria under harsh conditions. Many bacteria never form spores and remain viable without them, so they are not considered an essential structure.
Category reason: This item tests foundational knowledge of bacterial cell structures and which components are required versus specialized, which belongs to Microbiology.

Question 49

________ is giving the shape to the bacteria?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Bacterial shape is primarily determined by the rigid peptidoglycan layer, which resists internal turgor pressure and maintains morphology (e.g., cocci, bacilli). The cytoplasmic membrane is flexible and does not confer a stable external shape by itself. The capsule is an external polysaccharide/protein layer mainly involved in protection and immune evasion rather than defining basic cell geometry. Therefore, the structure responsible for shape is the rigid wall, not all listed components.
Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of bacterial cell structure and function (what determines bacterial shape), which is a core concept in Microbiology rather than a nursing care decision-making scenario.

Question 50

They are responsible for Haemagglutination Phenomenon?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Haemagglutination is classically mediated by microbial surface adhesins (hemagglutinins) that bind to receptors on erythrocytes and cross-link them, producing visible clumping. These agglutinating surface components are often associated with the bacterial glycocalyx/capsular material, which can contribute to adherence and aggregation phenomena. Flagella are primarily for motility, fimbriae for attachment to host epithelial cells (not typical RBC agglutination), and the cell wall is mainly structural rather than a specific hemagglutinin mediator.
Category reason: This tests a foundational microbiology concept about bacterial surface structures and their role in agglutination, rather than a nursing care decision, so it fits NursingScience under Microbiology.

Train with a large NCLEX question bank and jump into a full exam-style simulator

Microbiology NCLEX Practice Test

Continue Learning