Microbiology Practice Test 15
Microbiology NCLEX Practice Test
Microbiology is a key topic within the NCLEX test plan, located under Nursing Science → Clinical Foundations → Microbiology. This section explains pathogens, host defenses, and antimicrobial stewardship essential for infection control. Each test contains 50 questions designed to mirror the difficulty and variety of the real exam.
This is the 15th part of the Microbiology series. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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In the Microbiology Study Cards section, shared by real NCLEX candidates, you’ll find concise summaries and high-yield insights related to the most tested concepts. It’s a perfect space to reinforce challenging topics and sharpen your recall through quick, focused repetitions. Short, powerful, and repeatable!
Microbiology Practice Test 15
Polio is diagnosed by testing...?
- Sweat
- Stool
- Blood
- Urine
Explanation: Answer reason: Poliovirus replicates in the gastrointestinal tract and is shed in feces, so stool specimens are commonly used to detect the virus (e.g., by viral culture or PCR), especially early in infection. Blood testing is less useful for direct virus detection because viremia is transient; serology may show antibodies but is not the primary diagnostic specimen. Sweat is not used for poliovirus diagnosis, and urine is not a standard specimen for detecting poliovirus. Category reason: The question tests knowledge of how a viral infection is laboratory diagnosed and which specimen best detects the organism, which is primarily a microbiology concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization task.
A 16-year-old girl who is an exchange student from Panama is brought to the emergency department by her host family because of a high-grade fever and delirium. She has had 2 episodes of similar symptoms during the past 2 years. A peripheral blood smear shows punctate granulations in enlarged erythrocytes containing oval bodies. Which of the following is the most likely causal organism?
- Anaplasma phagocytophilum
- Babesia microti
- Plasmodium falciparum
- Plasmodium malariae
- Plasmodium vivax
Explanation: Answer reason: Enlarged erythrocytes with punctate granulations (Schuffner dots) and oval bodies on peripheral smear are classic for Plasmodium vivax (and P. ovale), reflecting infection of reticulocytes. The history of recurrent similar febrile episodes over 2 years supports relapse due to dormant liver hypnozoites, which occur with P. vivax. P. falciparum does not form hypnozoites and typically shows multiple delicate ring forms without enlarged RBCs, while Babesia shows Maltese-cross tetrads and Anaplasma infects granulocytes rather than RBCs. Category reason: The question tests identification of a pathogen based on blood-smear morphology and life-cycle features (e.g., Schuffner dots, hypnozoites), which is primarily microbiology/parasitology knowledge rather than nursing interventions.
Which cancer is linked to EBV (Epstein Barr Virus)?
- Cervical cancer
- Burkitt’s lymphoma
- Breast cancer
- Colon cancer
Explanation: Answer reason: Epstein–Barr virus is strongly associated with several malignancies, classically endemic Burkitt’s lymphoma (often involving c-MYC translocation) as well as nasopharyngeal carcinoma and some Hodgkin lymphomas. Cervical cancer is most strongly linked to high-risk HPV (e.g., 16, 18), not EBV. Breast and colon cancers are not classically EBV-driven in standard nursing/medical microbiology teaching, making Burkitt’s lymphoma the best answer. Category reason: The question tests knowledge of a viral pathogen (EBV) and its associated malignancy, which is primarily a microbiology/infectious disease association rather than a nursing care decision.
Methods of transmission of the hepatitis B virus is ....?
- Droplet.
- Airborne.
- Blood.
- Skin.
Explanation: Answer reason: Hepatitis B virus is transmitted primarily through exposure to infected blood and certain body fluids (e.g., percutaneous needlestick injuries, transfusions in settings without adequate screening, and sexual or perinatal transmission). It is not spread via droplet or airborne routes. Casual contact with intact skin does not transmit HBV; transmission requires blood/body fluid contact with mucous membranes or non-intact skin. Therefore, among the options, blood is the correct method of transmission. Category reason: This item tests knowledge of infectious disease transmission routes for HBV, which is a foundational microbiology concept rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization scenario.
Identify the disease caused by monkey bite.
- Influenza
- Typhoid
- Rabies
- Malaria
Explanation: Answer reason: Rabies is a fatal viral encephalitis transmitted through saliva of infected mammals via bites or scratches. Monkeys, like other mammals, can carry and transmit rabies, so a monkey bite is a potential exposure requiring rabies post-exposure prophylaxis. Influenza is primarily respiratory droplet spread, typhoid is fecal-oral (Salmonella typhi), and malaria is mosquito-borne (Anopheles), not bite-transmitted by monkeys. Category reason: This item tests infectious disease transmission and causative agents associated with animal bites, which is a foundational microbiology concept rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization scenario.
German measles is also known as?
- Rubeola
- Rubella
- Smallpox
- Varicella
Explanation: Answer reason: German measles refers to rubella, a contagious viral infection caused by the rubella virus (a togavirus). Rubeola is measles (caused by a paramyxovirus) and is a different illness. Varicella is chickenpox (varicella-zoster virus), and smallpox is caused by variola virus, both distinct from rubella. Therefore the correct synonym for German measles is rubella. Category reason: The question tests identification of a specific viral disease name/synonym (German measles = rubella), which is foundational infectious-disease knowledge rather than a nursing intervention or care decision, fitting Microbiology.
What is the Primary Mode of Transmission for Typhoid Fever?
- Airborne Droplets
- Mosquito Bites
- Contaminated Food/Water
- Direct contact
Explanation: Answer reason: Typhoid fever is caused by Salmonella enterica serovar Typhi and is transmitted primarily via the fecal–oral route. Infection most commonly occurs after ingestion of food or water contaminated with feces from an infected person or chronic carrier. It is not typically spread by airborne droplets or mosquito vectors. Direct person-to-person contact is not the primary route unless it results in fecal–oral contamination (e.g., poor hand hygiene during food handling). Category reason: The question tests the infectious disease transmission mechanism of a specific bacterium (S. Typhi), which is a foundational microbiology concept rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization scenario.
Malaria is transmitted by?
- Housefly
- Mosquito
- Louse
- Tick
Explanation: Answer reason: Malaria is caused by Plasmodium species and is transmitted to humans through the bite of an infected female Anopheles mosquito, which inoculates sporozoites. Houseflies are mechanical vectors for some enteric pathogens but do not transmit Plasmodium. Lice transmit infections like epidemic typhus, and ticks transmit diseases such as Lyme and Rocky Mountain spotted fever, not malaria. Category reason: This question tests knowledge of an infectious disease vector (mode of transmission) involving a protozoan parasite, which is a core topic in Microbiology.
Tuberculosis spread through:
- Mosquito
- Water
- Air
- Food
Explanation: Answer reason: Tuberculosis (Mycobacterium tuberculosis) is transmitted person-to-person via inhalation of airborne droplet nuclei generated when an infected person coughs, sneezes, speaks, or sings. It is not spread by mosquitoes (vector-borne), by water, or by food. Because it is an airborne infection, prevention focuses on ventilation and airborne precautions (e.g., respirators) in clinical settings. Therefore, air is the correct answer. Category reason: The question tests the mode of transmission of an infectious organism, a core concept in microbiology and communicable disease principles.
BCG vaccine is given to protect against?
- Typhoid
- Tuberculosis
- Measles
- Hepatitis
Explanation: Answer reason: BCG (Bacillus Calmette–Guérin) is a live attenuated vaccine derived from Mycobacterium bovis and is used to protect against tuberculosis. It is especially aimed at preventing severe forms of TB in children, such as TB meningitis and miliary TB. It does not provide primary protection against typhoid, measles, or hepatitis, which have their own specific vaccines. Category reason: This question tests knowledge of which infectious disease a specific vaccine targets, which is primarily microbiology/immunization content rather than a nursing care decision or intervention priority.
Bio- fertilization convert nitrogen to...
- Nitrates
- Ammonia
- Nitrogenase
- Amino acids
Explanation: Answer reason: Biofertilizers (e.g., Rhizobium, Azotobacter, cyanobacteria) perform biological nitrogen fixation, reducing atmospheric nitrogen (N2) into ammonia (NH3), which in soil is largely present as ammonium (NH4+). This ammonia/ammonium can then be further converted by nitrifying bacteria into nitrites and nitrates for plant uptake. “Nitrogenase” is the enzyme complex that catalyzes fixation, not the product. Amino acids are produced later after plants assimilate fixed nitrogen into organic compounds. Category reason: The item tests foundational knowledge of biological nitrogen fixation and the role of microorganisms in converting atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia, which is a core microbiology concept rather than a nursing care decision.
Which pathogen causes Pneumonia disease?
- Haemophilus influenzae
- Salmonella typhi
- Myxovirus influenzae
- Bordetella pertussis
Explanation: Answer reason: Haemophilus influenzae is a well-known bacterial cause of pneumonia, particularly in children and in adults with chronic lung disease, and can cause lower respiratory tract infections. Salmonella typhi primarily causes typhoid fever, not pneumonia. Bordetella pertussis causes whooping cough (pertussis) rather than typical pneumonia. Influenza virus (historically termed myxovirus influenzae) can cause viral pneumonia, but the single best classic pathogen associated with pneumonia among these options is Haemophilus influenzae. Category reason: The item asks to identify a causative pathogen of a disease, which is a foundational infectious-disease organism question best classified under Microbiology rather than nursing intervention/clinical judgment.
H1N1 Virus is linked to ........?
- Mental disorder
- HIV
- Swine flu
- AIDS
Explanation: Answer reason: Influenza A (H1N1) is a subtype of the influenza virus historically associated with outbreaks termed “swine flu,” reflecting its origin and circulation in swine populations with subsequent transmission to humans. It causes an acute respiratory illness consistent with influenza. HIV and AIDS are caused by human immunodeficiency virus, not influenza, and “mental disorder” is not a viral diagnosis. Therefore, the correct link is to swine flu. Category reason: The question tests identification of a virus subtype and its associated disease name, which is a foundational infectious-disease/virology concept within Microbiology rather than a nursing intervention scenario.
Vaginal discharge that is thick, white, and causes itching is most likely due to?
- Bacterial vaginosis
- Candida infection
- Trichomoniasis
- Chlamydia
Explanation: Answer reason: Thick, white “cottage cheese–like” discharge with vulvovaginal pruritus is classic for vulvovaginal candidiasis (Candida species). Bacterial vaginosis typically causes thin gray discharge with a fishy odor, not intense itching. Trichomoniasis more often produces frothy yellow-green discharge and strawberry cervix, and chlamydia is frequently asymptomatic or causes mucopurulent cervicitis rather than thick white discharge. Category reason: The item tests recognition of characteristic infectious etiologies of vaginitis based on discharge appearance and symptoms, which is primarily microbiology/infectious disease knowledge rather than nursing intervention or prioritization.
What is monkeypox?
- A bacterial infection
- A viral infection
- A fungal infection
- A parasitic in
Explanation: Answer reason: Mpox (formerly called monkeypox) is caused by the mpox virus, an Orthopoxvirus in the Poxviridae family, so it is a viral infection. It is transmitted through close contact with infectious lesions, body fluids, respiratory secretions, or contaminated materials (fomites). Because the causative agent is a virus, bacterial, fungal, and parasitic causes are incorrect. Category reason: The item tests identification of the type of infectious agent (viral vs bacterial/fungal/parasitic), which is a foundational microbiology concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.
Aedes mosquito is a carrier of....?
- Cholera
- Dengue
- Typhoid
- Malaria
Explanation: Answer reason: Aedes mosquitoes (especially Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus) are the primary vectors for dengue virus transmission. Malaria is transmitted by Anopheles mosquitoes, not Aedes. Cholera and typhoid are typically spread via fecal-oral transmission through contaminated food or water rather than mosquitoes. Therefore, dengue is the correct option. Category reason: This question tests knowledge of infectious disease transmission and vectors (which organisms carry which pathogens), a core topic in microbiology and epidemiology rather than nursing intervention decision-making.
Q. 'Tetanus' disease is also known as?
- Gangrene
- Whooping cough
- Shingles
- Lock jaw
Explanation: Answer reason: Tetanus, caused by the toxin of Clostridium tetani, leads to sustained muscle rigidity and painful spasms. A classic early manifestation is trismus (inability to open the mouth), commonly called "lockjaw." The other options refer to different conditions: gangrene is tissue necrosis, whooping cough is pertussis, and shingles is herpes zoster. Category reason: This question tests knowledge of an infectious disease synonym/clinical name related to a bacterial pathogen, which fits Microbiology rather than nursing interventions or prioritization.
Which sample is most commonly used for pulmonary TB diagnosis?
- Urine
- Blood
- Sputum
- CSF
Explanation: Answer reason: Pulmonary tuberculosis primarily involves the lungs, so respiratory secretions are the most appropriate specimen for detecting Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Sputum is commonly used for acid-fast bacilli (AFB) smear microscopy, culture, and nucleic acid amplification testing (e.g., GeneXpert/NAAT). Blood is not routinely used to diagnose pulmonary TB, urine is more relevant for genitourinary TB, and CSF is used for suspected TB meningitis. Category reason: The question tests which clinical specimen is used to diagnose an infectious organism (Mycobacterium tuberculosis), which is a core Microbiology concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision.
The mode of transmission of trachoma from one person to another person is?
- Direct Contact
- Indirect Contact
- Inoculation
- Iatrogenic
Explanation: Answer reason: Trachoma (Chlamydia trachomatis) is primarily spread through direct contact with infected ocular/nasal secretions, often via hands, shared face-to-face contact, and close household crowding. Although fomites and flies can contribute as mechanical vectors, the classic person-to-person route is direct contact with contaminated secretions. “Inoculation” and “iatrogenic” are not the typical epidemiologic modes described for trachoma transmission. Therefore, direct contact is the best single answer among the options. Category reason: This item tests infectious disease transmission mechanisms of a specific pathogen (trachoma/Chlamydia trachomatis), which is a foundational microbiology concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.
VDRL test is done for?
- Tuberculosis
- Syphilis
- Typhoid
- Cholera
Explanation: Answer reason: VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory) is a non-treponemal serologic screening test used to detect antibodies produced in response to Treponema pallidum infection (syphilis). It is commonly used for screening (including prenatal screening) and for monitoring response to therapy via titers. It is not used to diagnose tuberculosis, typhoid, or cholera, which require different microbiologic tests. Category reason: The question tests knowledge of an infectious-disease diagnostic test (VDRL) and which pathogen/disease it screens for, which is a core topic in Microbiology/serology rather than nursing care decision-making.
What is the carrier of parasite plasmodium?
- Tick
- Mosquito
- Bee
- Ant
Explanation: Answer reason: Plasmodium species (the parasites that cause malaria) are transmitted to humans by the bite of an infected female Anopheles mosquito, which serves as the vector (carrier). The sexual stage of the parasite’s life cycle occurs in the mosquito, enabling further transmission. Ticks, bees, and ants are not vectors for Plasmodium malaria in humans. Category reason: This question tests knowledge of an infectious disease vector (Plasmodium transmission), which is a core topic in microbiology/parasitology rather than nursing intervention or prioritization.
The process of conversion of milk into curd is due to?
- Virus
- Bacteria
- Fungi
- Protozoa
Explanation: Answer reason: Milk converts to curd primarily due to fermentation by lactic acid bacteria (e.g., Lactobacillus). These bacteria convert lactose into lactic acid, lowering the pH and causing casein proteins to coagulate, forming curd. Viruses and protozoa do not carry out this fermentation process, and fungi are not the typical agent for curd formation in standard milk-to-curd conversion. Category reason: This question tests the causative microorganism responsible for a fermentation process, which is a core concept in microbiology rather than nursing care decision-making.
What is the full form of HIV?
- Human Immune Virus
- Human Immunodeficiency Virus
- Health Immunity Virus
- High Infection Virus
Explanation: Answer reason: HIV stands for Human Immunodeficiency Virus, a retrovirus that targets the immune system, particularly CD4+ T lymphocytes, leading to progressive immunodeficiency. The other options are incorrect expansions and do not reflect the established medical term. Correctly identifying the acronym is foundational for understanding HIV-related infection, transmission, and disease progression (AIDS). Category reason: This item tests identification of a microorganism-related medical acronym (HIV) and its correct expansion, which is a foundational concept in Microbiology rather than a nursing care decision.
The following diseases can be transmitted by water and food expect...?
- Hepatitis C
- Hepatitis A
- Cholera
- Poliomyelitis
Explanation: Answer reason: Hepatitis A, cholera (Vibrio cholerae), and poliomyelitis are classically transmitted via the fecal–oral route, often through contaminated food or water. Hepatitis C is primarily bloodborne, transmitted through exposure to infected blood (e.g., injection drug use, needlestick injuries, unscreened transfusions historically). Food- and waterborne transmission is not a typical route for hepatitis C, making it the exception. Category reason: This item tests knowledge of infectious disease transmission routes (fecal–oral vs bloodborne), which is a core concept in microbiology and communicable disease epidemiology rather than nursing interventions.
Polio is caused by...?
- Bacteria
- Virus
- Protozoa
- Fungi
Explanation: Answer reason: Poliomyelitis is caused by poliovirus, an enterovirus (Picornaviridae) transmitted primarily via the fecal-oral route. As a viral infection, it is not caused by bacteria, protozoa, or fungi. The virus can invade the central nervous system and damage anterior horn motor neurons, leading to acute flaccid paralysis in severe cases. Category reason: The question tests identification of the infectious agent responsible for polio (poliovirus), which is a foundational microorganism/etiology concept within Microbiology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.
Which disease is commonly associated with bats?
- Malaria
- Dengue
- Rabies
- Typhoid
Explanation: Answer reason: Bats are well-known reservoirs for rabies virus and can transmit it to humans through bites or saliva exposure to broken skin or mucous membranes. Malaria and dengue are mosquito-borne diseases and are not primarily associated with bats. Typhoid is caused by Salmonella Typhi and is typically spread via contaminated food or water, not via bats. Category reason: This question tests knowledge of infectious disease reservoirs and transmission, which is a core concept in microbiology.
Which microorganism is used in antibiotics production?
- Coli
- Mycobacterium
- Vibrio
- Streptomyces
Explanation: Answer reason: Streptomyces species (soil-dwelling actinomycetes) are a major natural source of clinically important antibiotics, including streptomycin, tetracyclines, and chloramphenicol. They produce secondary metabolites with antibacterial activity that are harvested and refined for antibiotic production. E. coli is commonly used as a lab production host for recombinant proteins, but it is not a classic primary producer of natural antibiotics. Mycobacterium and Vibrio are better known as pathogens rather than antibiotic-producing industrial organisms. Category reason: This question tests knowledge of microorganisms used as industrial sources of antibiotics, which is a core concept in Microbiology rather than nursing care decision-making.
Scabies is caused by…?
- Honeybee
- Mites
- House fly
- Tsetse fly
Explanation: Answer reason: Scabies is an infestation caused by the human itch mite, Sarcoptes scabiei var. hominis. The mite burrows into the stratum corneum, producing intense pruritus and a characteristic rash with burrows. Honeybees, house flies, and tsetse flies do not cause scabies; they are unrelated insects with different disease associations. Category reason: The question tests the causative organism (etiology) of an infectious/infestation condition, which is a core concept in Microbiology rather than nursing intervention or prioritization.
Sleeping sickness happens due to___.
- Deficiency of vitamin_A
- High blood pressure
- Deficiency of calcium in body
- Unicellular animals named Trypanosoma
Explanation: Answer reason: African sleeping sickness (human African trypanosomiasis) is caused by protozoan parasites of the genus Trypanosoma, transmitted by the tsetse fly. It is not caused by vitamin A deficiency, calcium deficiency, or hypertension. The parasite invades the blood/lymph and later the central nervous system, leading to sleep disturbances and neurologic symptoms. Therefore the causative organism is Trypanosoma. Category reason: The question asks for the etiologic agent of an infectious disease, which is a foundational concept in microbiology (protozoan pathogens) rather than a nursing intervention or care scenario.
Leishmaniasis (kala-azar) is caused by....?
- Mites
- Honeybee
- Housefly
- Sandfly
Explanation: Answer reason: Visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar) is caused by protozoa of the genus Leishmania and is transmitted to humans by the bite of infected female phlebotomine sandflies. The sandfly serves as the vector where the parasite develops and from which the infective promastigotes are inoculated into humans. Mites, honeybees, and houseflies are not the established vectors for Leishmania transmission. Category reason: This question tests infectious disease transmission and the arthropod vector involved in leishmaniasis, which is a core topic in Microbiology.
Kala-azar is known as....?
- Brown disease
- Yellow disease
- Green disease
- Black disease
Explanation: Answer reason: Kala-azar is visceral leishmaniasis (typically due to Leishmania donovani) and is classically called “black disease” because of the darkening (hyperpigmentation) of the skin seen in some cases. This name is part of the standard clinical/microbiology terminology for leishmanial infection. The other color terms listed are not recognized standard names for kala-azar. Category reason: The item tests recognition of a common alternate name for an infectious disease (visceral leishmaniasis), which is primarily covered under Microbiology rather than nursing care decision-making.
Polio is prevented by which vaccine?
- DPT
- OPV
- MMR
- BCG
Explanation: Answer reason: Polio is prevented by polio vaccines, including the oral polio vaccine (OPV) and inactivated polio vaccine (IPV). Among the listed options, OPV is specifically formulated to immunize against poliovirus. DPT protects against diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus; MMR protects against measles, mumps, and rubella; and BCG protects mainly against tuberculosis. Category reason: This is a foundational immunization/communicable disease knowledge question about which vaccine prevents a specific viral infection (poliovirus), aligning best with Microbiology rather than nursing-care decision making.
Lyme disease is transmitted by?
- Louse
- Tick
- Housefly
- Mosquito
Explanation: Answer reason: Lyme disease is caused by the spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected Ixodes (deer) ticks. This is a classic vector-borne zoonotic infection with ticks as the primary vector. Lice, houseflies, and mosquitoes are not the typical vectors for Lyme disease. Category reason: This question tests knowledge of the infectious agent’s mode of transmission and vector, which is a core concept in Microbiology rather than nursing action or prioritization.
Live attenuated vaccine is ....?
- Covid 19
- Typhoid
- IPV
- OPV
Explanation: Answer reason: OPV (oral polio vaccine) is a live attenuated vaccine containing weakened poliovirus that can replicate in the gut and induce strong mucosal (IgA) immunity. IPV (inactivated polio vaccine) is killed and cannot replicate. Most routine COVID-19 vaccines are not live attenuated (commonly mRNA, viral vector, or inactivated types). Typhoid vaccines include both killed injectable (Vi polysaccharide) and live oral (Ty21a), but as a general single-best answer among these options, OPV is the classic live attenuated vaccine. Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of vaccine types (live attenuated vs inactivated) and examples, which is a core concept in microbiology/immunization science rather than a nursing care decision.
What is the dirtiest part of the human body?
- Eye
- Feet
- Belly button
- Nose
Explanation: Answer reason: The umbilicus (belly button) is a warm, moist skin fold that can trap sweat, lint, sebum, and dead skin, creating an environment where bacteria and fungi can accumulate. Studies sampling microbial diversity commonly find the navel to harbor high bacterial variety and bioburden compared with many other skin sites. Eyes and the nose have protective cleansing mechanisms (tears, mucus/cilia), and while feet can be heavily colonized, the question’s typical best answer in hygiene/microbe-trivia contexts is the belly button due to its recessed anatomy and debris retention. Category reason: This question is primarily about where microorganisms commonly accumulate on the body and why, which is a microbiology concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.
Mycology is the study of?
- Bacteria
- Viruses
- Fungi
- Algae
Explanation: Answer reason: Mycology is the branch of microbiology that focuses specifically on fungi, including yeasts and molds. It covers fungal structure, classification, growth, and the diseases they cause (mycoses). Bacteria are studied in bacteriology, viruses in virology, and algae in phycology, making "Fungi" the best answer. Category reason: The item tests foundational knowledge about microorganisms and the scientific field that studies them, which is a core concept in Microbiology rather than a nursing care decision.
Diphtheria is a disease of.....?
- Throat
- Kidney
- Skin
- Liver
Explanation: Answer reason: Diphtheria is caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae and most commonly presents as an upper respiratory tract infection involving the pharynx and tonsils. It characteristically forms a thick gray pseudomembrane in the throat, leading to sore throat and potential airway obstruction. While cutaneous diphtheria can occur, the classic and most tested presentation is pharyngeal (throat) diphtheria. Category reason: This is a foundational question about an infectious disease’s typical site and presentation, which is primarily studied under Microbiology rather than nursing interventions or prioritization.
HIV virus belongs to which of the following group-?
- Flavivirus
- Hepadnavirus
- Rhabdovirus
- Retrovirus
Explanation: Answer reason: HIV is an enveloped, positive-sense single-stranded RNA virus in the family Retroviridae (genus Lentivirus). It carries reverse transcriptase and integrates a DNA copy of its genome into the host cell genome, which is the defining feature of retroviruses. The other options are different virus families (e.g., flaviviruses include dengue; hepadnaviruses include hepatitis B; rhabdoviruses include rabies). Category reason: This question tests viral classification and replication characteristics (reverse transcriptase and genome integration), which are core topics in Microbiology rather than nursing interventions or patient-care decision-making.
Yellow fever is transmitted through?
- Housefly
- Culex mosquito
- Aedes mosquito
- Sandfly
Explanation: Answer reason: Yellow fever is an arboviral (flavivirus) infection transmitted primarily by Aedes mosquitoes, especially Aedes aegypti, in urban cycles. Culex mosquitoes are more classically associated with infections like West Nile virus and lymphatic filariasis transmission, not yellow fever. Houseflies and sandflies do not transmit yellow fever; sandflies are vectors for leishmaniasis. Category reason: This question tests knowledge of an infectious disease vector (mode of transmission), which is a core topic in Microbiology rather than nursing interventions or clinical prioritization.
Rice water stool is the characteristic of...?
- Cholera
- Malaria
- Chicken guniya
- Yellow fever
Explanation: Answer reason: Profuse, painless watery diarrhea described as “rice-water stools” is classic for cholera caused by Vibrio cholerae. The organism’s enterotoxin triggers massive intestinal chloride and water secretion, leading to rapid dehydration and electrolyte loss. Malaria, chikungunya ("chicken guniya"), and yellow fever primarily cause febrile systemic illness rather than characteristic rice-water diarrhea. Category reason: The item tests recognition of a hallmark clinical feature of an infectious disease and its causative organism, which is best categorized under Microbiology rather than nursing interventions or prioritization.
Which disease is known as breakbone fever?
- Typhoid
- Dengue
- Filariasis
- Malaria
Explanation: Answer reason: Breakbone fever is the classic nickname for dengue fever because it commonly causes severe myalgias and arthralgias that feel like “bones breaking.” It is caused by dengue virus (a Flavivirus) transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes. Typhoid, filariasis, and malaria can cause fever and systemic symptoms but are not characteristically termed breakbone fever. Category reason: The item tests recognition of an infectious disease’s common name and its etiologic agent category, which is core microbiology/communicable disease knowledge rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision.
Which T.B is more infectious..???
- Meningeal T.B
- Intestinal T.B
- Pulmonary T.B
- Spinal T.B
Explanation: Answer reason: Pulmonary tuberculosis is the most infectious form because Mycobacterium tuberculosis is transmitted primarily via airborne droplet nuclei generated by coughing, sneezing, or talking. Patients with pulmonary or laryngeal TB—especially when sputum smear-positive and cavitary disease is present—shed large numbers of organisms into the air. Extrapulmonary forms such as meningeal, intestinal, and spinal TB are generally not contagious unless there is concurrent pulmonary involvement or aerosol-generating procedures. Category reason: This question tests the mode of transmission and infectiousness of different clinical forms of tuberculosis, which is a core concept in microbiology and infectious disease spread rather than a nursing intervention scenario.
AIDS is caused by?
- Virus
- Bacteria
- Fungs
- None
Explanation: Answer reason: AIDS is caused by infection with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which is a retrovirus. HIV primarily targets CD4+ T lymphocytes, leading to progressive immune suppression and susceptibility to opportunistic infections and malignancies. Bacteria and fungi can cause secondary/opportunistic infections in AIDS but do not cause AIDS itself. Therefore, the correct option is Virus. Category reason: This question tests the causative infectious agent of a disease (HIV causing AIDS), which is core microbiology knowledge rather than a nursing intervention or patient-care decision.
Dengue fever is transmitted by......?
- Flea
- Cockroach
- Housefly
- Mosquito
Explanation: Answer reason: Dengue fever is a viral illness transmitted to humans primarily by Aedes mosquitoes (especially Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus). These mosquitoes acquire the virus from an infected person and then transmit it through subsequent bites. Fleas, cockroaches, and houseflies are not vectors for dengue virus transmission. Therefore, the correct option is mosquito. Category reason: The item tests knowledge of the infectious disease vector responsible for transmitting dengue virus, which is a microbiology/infectious disease concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization task.
Which of the following is not a symptoms of polio?
- Paralysis
- Fever
- Blurred vision
- Muscle weakness
Explanation: Answer reason: Poliomyelitis is a viral infection (poliovirus) that can cause a febrile illness and, in severe cases, asymmetric flaccid paralysis with muscle weakness due to anterior horn cell involvement. Fever and muscle weakness/paralysis are therefore consistent with polio’s clinical presentation. Blurred vision is not a typical symptom of poliomyelitis and is more suggestive of other neurologic or systemic conditions. Category reason: This item tests recognition of clinical features of an infectious disease caused by a specific virus (poliovirus), which aligns best with Microbiology rather than nursing interventions or care prioritization.
Which of the following diseases is caused by a virus?
- Malaria
- Influenza
- Tuberculosis
- Dengue
Explanation: Answer reason: Influenza is caused by influenza viruses (Orthomyxoviridae) and is transmitted primarily via respiratory droplets/aerosols. Malaria is caused by the protozoan parasite Plasmodium, and tuberculosis is caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Dengue is also a viral illness (dengue virus), but when a single best answer is required, influenza is the most commonly recognized viral disease among the options. Category reason: The question tests identification of the type of infectious agent (virus vs protozoa vs bacteria), which is a foundational concept in microbiology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.
Which disease is caused by plasmodium parasite?
- Malaria
- Ebola
- Tuberculosis
- Influenzas
Explanation: Answer reason: Plasmodium is a protozoan parasite transmitted by the bite of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes and it causes malaria. After entering the body it infects hepatocytes and then red blood cells, producing the characteristic febrile paroxysms and anemia. Ebola is caused by a filovirus, tuberculosis by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and influenza by influenza viruses, not Plasmodium. Category reason: The question tests identification of the infectious agent (Plasmodium) and the disease it causes, which is a core topic in microbiology/parasitology rather than nursing care decision-making.
Tapeworm live in the:
- Lungs
- Kidney
- Pancreas
- Intestine
Explanation: Answer reason: Adult tapeworms (cestodes such as Taenia species) live attached to the mucosa of the small intestine, where they absorb nutrients through their tegument. Humans typically acquire infection by ingesting larvae in undercooked meat or fish, after which the worm matures in the intestinal lumen. While larval forms can migrate to other tissues in some species (e.g., cysticercosis), the classic site for the adult tapeworm is the intestine, making this the best answer. Category reason: This question tests knowledge of where a parasite resides in the human body (host–pathogen relationship), which is a foundational infectious disease concept best classified under Microbiology rather than nursing care decision-making.
What type of cell is a prokaryote?
- Bacterial
- Plant
- Fungal
- Animal
Explanation: Answer reason: Prokaryotes are organisms whose cells lack a membrane-bound nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles; bacteria are classic prokaryotes. Plant, fungal, and animal cells are eukaryotic, meaning they contain a true nucleus and membrane-bound organelles. Therefore, the correct choice is bacterial. Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge about cellular organization and the distinction between prokaryotes and eukaryotes, which is a core concept in Microbiology.
Whooping cough is caused by?
- S. Pneumonia
- Klebsiella
- Legionella
- Bordetella pertussis
Explanation: Answer reason: Whooping cough (pertussis) is a contagious respiratory infection caused by the gram-negative coccobacillus Bordetella pertussis. It produces toxins that damage respiratory epithelium and lead to paroxysmal coughing with an inspiratory “whoop,” especially in children. The other listed organisms can cause pneumonia or atypical respiratory infections but are not the etiologic agent of pertussis. Category reason: This question tests identification of the bacterial causative agent of a specific infectious disease, which is a core Microbiology concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.
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