Infection Control Practice Test 1
Infection Control NCLEX Practice Test
Infection Control, within the NCLEX test plan under Safe and Effective Care Environment → Safety and Infection Control, reflects the core knowledge domains and conceptual competencies directly related to what the exam evaluates. The targeted number of questions is 50; designed with realistic clinical scenarios and conceptual variety to help you identify both your strengths and improvement areas.
This test is the 1st part of the Infection Control section. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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In the Infection Control Study Cards section, shared by real NCLEX candidates, you’ll find concise summaries and high-yield insights related to the most tested concepts. It’s a perfect space to reinforce challenging topics and sharpen your recall through quick, focused repetitions. Short, powerful, and repeatable!
Infection Control Practice Test 1
Which of the following are elements needed to transmit an infection?
- Infectious agent
- Reservoir
- Means of transmission
- All of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: Transmission of infection requires all core components of the chain of infection: an infectious agent, a reservoir where the organism can survive, and a means of transmission to a susceptible host. Without any one of these elements, infection cannot spread.
What is NOT a symptom of measles?
- High fever
- Cough
- Chest pain
Explanation: Answer reason: Classic symptoms of measles include high fever, cough, coryza, conjunctivitis, and Koplik spots, followed by a characteristic maculopapular rash. Chest pain is not a typical sign of measles and suggests another condition.
A client is admitted with symptoms of pseudomembranous colitis. Which finding is associated with Clostridium difficile?
- Diarrhea containing blood and mucus.
- Cough, fever, and shortness of breath
- Anorexia, weight loss, and fever.
- Development of ulcers on the lower extremities.
Explanation: Answer reason: C. difficile commonly causes profuse watery diarrhea that may contain mucus and blood due to colonic inflammation.
Which of the following diseases is not transmitted by water and food?
- Hepatitis C
- Hepatitis A
- Cholera
- Poliomyelitis
Explanation: Answer reason: Hepatitis C is primarily bloodborne (percutaneous, sexual, and vertical transmission) and is not spread via contaminated food or water, unlike hepatitis A, cholera, and poliomyelitis, which are fecal-oral.
The pressure to be set in the autoclave for sterilization is?
- 15 lb
- 5 lb
- 10 lb
- 20 lb
Explanation: Answer reason: Standard steam sterilization in an autoclave is performed at approximately 121°C and 15 psi (lb/in²). This achieves effective microbial destruction.
Which measure used by the nurse would be most effective in preventing exposure while caring for a client with Hepatitis B?
- Apply a mask before entering the client's room
- Place a contaminated needle in a sharps container
- Wear a gown while changing an IV bag
- Wear gloves when taking the client's pulse
Explanation: Answer reason: Hepatitis B is a bloodborne infection, and the greatest risk of transmission occurs through exposure to contaminated needles or sharps. Proper disposal of needles in a puncture-resistant sharps container is the most effective measure to prevent exposure.
The nurse is caring for a patient with emphysema and respiratory failure who is receiving mechanical ventilation through an endotracheal tube. To prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP), which action is most important to include in the plan of care?
- Administer ordered antibiotics as scheduled.
- Hyperoxygenate the patient before suctioning.
- Maintain the head of the bed at a 30- to 45-degree angle.
- Suction the airway when coarse crackles are audible.
Explanation: Answer reason: Elevating the head of the bed 30–45 degrees reduces aspiration of secretions and gastric contents and is a key evidence-based intervention in VAP prevention bundles. Antibiotics treat rather than prevent VAP; hyperoxygenation is for suctioning safety; suctioning when crackles are heard does not prevent VAP.
A client with AIDS asks the nurse why he cannot have a pitcher of water left at his bedside. The nurse should tell the client?
- It would be best for him to drink ice water.
- He should drink several glasses of juice instead.
- It makes it easier to keep a record of his intake.
- He should drink only freshly-run water.
Explanation: Answer reason: Immunocompromised clients are at high risk for infection; standing water in bedside pitchers can harbor microorganisms. To reduce contamination, advise them to drink only freshly run water rather than water kept at the bedside.
A 6-month-old infant is hospitalized with symptoms of botulism. What aspect of the infant's history is associated with Clostridium botulinum infection?
- The infant sucks his fingers and toes.
- The mother sweetens the infant's cereal with honey.
- The infant was switched to a soy-based formula.
- The father recently purchased an aquarium.
Explanation: Answer reason: Honey can contain C. botulinum spores; ingestion by infants can cause infant botulism. The other elements in the history are not established risk factors.
When cleaning the thermometer after use, the directions to follow for medical asepsis are?
- From bulb to stem
- From stem to bulb
- From stem to stem
- From bulb to bulb
Explanation: Answer reason: With medical asepsis, clean from the least contaminated area to the most contaminated area to avoid spreading microorganisms to cleaner areas. The stem is the least soiled and the bulb is the most soiled; therefore, wipe from the stem to the bulb.
What is the required temperature for effective sterilization in a steam autoclave operating at 15 pounds per square inch for 30 minutes?
- 121 degrees Celsius
- 100 degrees Celsius
- 150 degrees Celsius
- 200 degrees Celsius
Explanation: Answer reason: Standard steam autoclave sterilization uses 121°C (250°F) at 15 psi for 15–30 minutes to achieve microbial destruction; 121°C is required.
What is the approximate risk of HIV infection from a needlestick injury?
- About 0.3%.
- About 1%.
- About 5%.
- About 10%
Explanation: Answer reason: Percutaneous exposure to HIV via a needlestick carries an estimated transmission risk of about 0.3%, based on occupational exposure data.
In cold chain management, between which temperatures is the temperature maintained?
- +2°C to +8°C
- -2°C to 8°C
- 4 to 6°C
- None of the above.
Explanation: Answer reason: Vaccines and other biological materials must be kept between +2°C and +8°C to maintain stability and potency. Below +2°C, freezing can destroy active ingredients, while above +8°C, heat can cause degradation and loss of efficacy.
The most common nosocomial infection is?
- Urinary tract infection
- Infectious diarrhea (C. difficile)
- Pneumonia (Gram-negative bacteria)
- Bloodstream infection
Explanation: Answer reason: Catheter-associated urinary tract infections are the most frequent healthcare-associated infections; pneumonia, bloodstream infections, and C. difficile infections occur less commonly.
Fresh bleaching powder contains?
- 0.033% chlorine
- 33% chlorine
- 0.33% chlorine.
- 3.3% chlorine
Explanation: Answer reason: Fresh bleaching powder contains about 33% available chlorine; this is the standard concentration for effective disinfection.
How does the coronavirus transmit?
- When a person sneezes or coughs, droplets spread in the air or fall on the ground and nearby surfaces.
- If another person is nearby and inhales the droplets, or touches these surfaces and then touches his or her face, eyes, or mouth, he or she can get an infection.
- If the distance to the infected person is less than 1 meter.
- All of the above are correct.
Explanation: Answer reason: SARS-CoV-2 spreads mainly by respiratory droplets at close range and by touching contaminated surfaces and then the face; all listed mechanisms contribute to transmission.
Which of the following chemicals is the most powerful disinfectant?
- Dettol
- Lysol
- Phenol
- KMnO4
Explanation: Answer reason: Lysol (cresol) has a higher phenol coefficient and greater germicidal activity than phenol, Dettol (chloroxylenol), or KMnO4, making it the most powerful disinfectant among the options.
The most efficient way to break the chain of infection is?
- Hand hygiene
- PPE
- Wearing gloves.
- Isolation
Explanation: Answer reason: Hand hygiene most effectively interrupts transmission by removing pathogens from the hands and preventing cross-contamination. PPE, gloves, and isolation are important but are less universally effective than proper hand hygiene.
Mild symptoms of the novel coronavirus are?
- Fever
- Cough
- Shortness of breath
- All of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: Fever, cough, and shortness of breath are recognized early or mild symptoms of COVID-19, so all listed options apply.
Fumigation is the process of—?
- Nursing care
- Contraception
- Sterilization
- Placental removal
Explanation: Answer reason: Fumigation uses gaseous chemicals to destroy microorganisms in rooms or equipment; it is a method of sterilization or decontamination.
Which element in the circular chain of infection can be eliminated by preserving skin integrity?
- Reservoir
- Host
- Mode of transmission
- Portal of entry
Explanation: Answer reason: The skin is a natural barrier against pathogens. Preserving skin integrity prevents microorganisms from entering the body, thus breaking the “portal of entry” link in the chain of infection.
A burn client's care plan indicates an expected outcome of no localized or systemic infection. Which assessment by the nurse supports this outcome?
- Wound culture results showing minimal bacteria.
- Cloudy, foul-smelling urine output.
- White blood cell count of 14,000.
- Temperature is 101°F.
Explanation: Answer reason: Minimal bacteria on a wound culture indicates absence of active local infection, supporting the expected outcome. The other findings—cloudy foul-smelling urine, elevated WBC count, and fever—suggest infection.
The nurse on the oncology unit is caring for a client with a WBC of 1,500. During evening visitation, a visitor brings a fruit basket. What action should the nurse take?
- Encourage the client to eat small snacks of fruit.
- Remove fruits that are not high in vitamin C.
- Instruct the client to avoid high-fiber fruits.
- Remove the fruit from the client's room.
Explanation: Answer reason: Clients with neutropenia should avoid fresh fruits and vegetables due to the risk of bacterial or fungal contamination.
Which of the following statements does the nurse most need to keep in mind when collecting a sputum specimen?
- Sputum should be coughed up after taking a deep breath.
- Healthy individuals can produce sputum.
- Sputum is the same as saliva or spit.
- Mouth care should not be given before collecting sputum.
Explanation: Answer reason: Proper sputum collection after a deep breath ensures sample accuracy and minimizes contamination.
The nurse is caring for a client 7 days after a burn injury involving 60% of the body surface area. The nursing care of this client would primarily focus on?
- Meticulous infection control measures
- Fluid replacement evaluation
- Psychological adjustment to the wound.
- Measurement and application of a pressure garment
Explanation: Answer reason: One week after a major burn, the acute resuscitation phase has passed, and the greatest risks are wound infection and sepsis due to extensive tissue damage and open wounds. Therefore, preventing infection is the primary nursing focus.
Which of the following is a contraindication to taking a rectal temperature?
- Unconscious
- Neutropenic
- NPO
- Very young children
Explanation: Answer reason: Rectal temperatures can cause mucosal trauma and introduce bacteria into the bloodstream; they are avoided in neutropenic clients due to the high risk of infection. NPO status and unconsciousness are not specific contraindications, and rectal temperatures may be used in many young children when not otherwise contraindicated.
A patient is on respiratory isolation for tuberculosis (TB). Which of the following indicates removal of isolation precautions?
- Sputum culture was negative for AFB after INH and PAS therapy.
- On anti-TB drugs, including INH, for one month.
- No infiltrates on chest X-ray.
- Absence of adventitious breath sounds.
Explanation: Answer reason: Airborne isolation for TB can be discontinued when the patient is no longer infectious, which is best indicated by a negative sputum for AFB while on effective therapy. Medication duration alone, chest X-ray changes, and breath sounds do not determine infectiousness.
What is the common mode of transmission of poliomyelitis?
- Droplet
- Fecal-oral route
- Direct contact
Explanation: Answer reason: Poliovirus is transmitted primarily via the fecal–oral route through contaminated hands, water, or food.
The nurse is giving instructions to the mother of a newborn infant with oral candidiasis. Which of the following statements by the mother would indicate the need for further teaching?
- Nystatin should be given four times a day after my baby eats.
- I will boil the nipples and pacifiers for twenty minutes.
- I should be taking the medication prescribed for this infection.
- The therapy can be discontinued when the spots disappear.
Explanation: Answer reason: Stopping antifungal therapy when lesions disappear is incorrect; treatment (e.g., nystatin) should continue for the prescribed course, typically about a week, to prevent recurrence. The other statements reflect correct care: giving nystatin after feeds, sterilizing nipples/pacifiers, and treating the mother concurrently.
Endoscopic catheters are sterilized by?
- Hot air oven
- Boiling
- Autoclaving
- 2% glutaraldehyde
Explanation: Answer reason: Endoscopic catheters are heat‑sensitive and cannot be boiled, autoclaved, or exposed to dry heat; they require chemical high‑level disinfection/sterilization with 2% glutaraldehyde.
In the process of water purification, chlorine acts as?
- Antimicrobial
- Antifungal
- Antibiotic
- Germicidal
Explanation: Answer reason: Chlorine destroys microorganisms by oxidizing their cell structures; hence, it serves as a germicide in water purification processes.
Considering the chain of infection, a reservoir might be?
- A tick carrying Lyme disease.
- An uninfected patient.
- A contaminated water supply.
- Staphylococcus bacteria.
Explanation: Answer reason: In the chain of infection, a reservoir is the environment where the pathogen lives and multiplies. A contaminated water supply can serve as a reservoir. A tick is a vector (mode of transmission), an uninfected patient is not a source, and Staphylococcus bacteria represent the infectious agent, not the reservoir.
Cross infection can occur through the following, except?
- Fomites
- Autoclaving
- Contained food and drinks.
- Insects
Explanation: Answer reason: Fomites, contaminated food/drinks, and insects can transmit pathogens; autoclaving sterilizes and prevents transmission, so it is not a source of cross infection.
The most common means of spreading infection are?
- Soiled instruments
- Infected patients
- Human hands
- Domestic animals
Explanation: Answer reason: Hands are the most common vehicle for transmission of pathogens in healthcare; hand hygiene is the primary prevention measure.
Infections occur in hospital care facilities, including hospitals, by any method?
- Direct contact
- Indirect contact
- Droplet transmission
- Nosocomial
Explanation: Answer reason: An infection acquired in a hospital or healthcare facility, regardless of the route of transmission, is termed a nosocomial (healthcare-associated) infection. The other options are transmission routes, not the name of the infection.
A common type of nosocomial infection is?
- Urinary tract infection
- Meningitis
- Gastroenteritis
- Cellulitis
Explanation: Answer reason: Catheter-associated urinary tract infections are the most common hospital-acquired (nosocomial) infections, more frequent than meningitis, gastroenteritis, or cellulitis.
Which of the following are the factors that increase a patient's potential for acquiring a nosocomial infection?
- Age
- Nutritional status
- Stress
- Inadequate stress
Explanation: Answer reason: Physiologic stress elevates cortisol and suppresses immune responses, increasing susceptibility to hospital-acquired infections.
For treatment of class III dog bite, all of these are correct EXCEPT?
- Give immunoglobulin for passive immunity
- Give an ARV
- Immediately stitch the wound under antibiotic coverage
- Immediately wash the wound with soap and water
Explanation: Answer reason: Category III bites require immediate wound washing, rabies vaccine (ARV), and rabies immunoglobulin. Primary closure is generally avoided initially; suturing, if needed, is delayed after proper cleansing and prophylaxis. Therefore immediate stitching is the incorrect step.
After using a thermometer, it should be cleaned in which direction?
- Bulb to stem
- Stem to bulb
- In any direction
- By linear movement
Explanation: Answer reason: Clean from the least contaminated area to the most contaminated. The bulb is the dirtiest part, so wipe from stem to bulb to avoid spreading microbes to the stem.
Most common hospital acquired infection is?
- Respiratory
- Kidney
- Bladder
- Digestive system
Explanation: Answer reason: Urinary tract infections—most often catheter-associated—are the most common hospital-acquired infections; these primarily involve the bladder.
The most difficult route is to block spread of-?
- Vector
- Man to man
- Airborne
- Waterborne
Explanation: Answer reason: Airborne transmission via droplet nuclei remains suspended and travels long distances, making containment difficult compared with vector, water, or direct contact routes.
Which of the following refers to a patient who enters a hospital with a known infection?
- Nosocomial infection
- Iatrogenic infection
- Community-acquired infection
- Idiopathic infection
Explanation: Answer reason: A community-acquired infection is one that the patient already had before hospital admission. Nosocomial and iatrogenic infections are acquired inside the healthcare setting, while idiopathic means unknown cause.
The nurse is caring for a client who was recently admitted to the hospital for complications related to Influenza A. To prevent infection transmission, which personal protective equipment (PPE) should be worn when entering the client’s room?
- Isolation gown
- Sterile gloves
- N95 respirator mask
- Face mask
Explanation: Answer reason: Influenza A is transmitted primarily by droplets. Droplet precautions require a surgical (face) mask within 3 feet of the patient; N95 respirators are reserved for airborne pathogens like tuberculosis.
The disease notifiable to the WHO under the International Regulation Act are all except?
- Cholera
- Plague
- Yellow Fever
- Diphtheria
Explanation: Answer reason: Under the International Health Regulations, cholera, plague, and yellow fever are historically notifiable diseases to WHO; diphtheria is not on that list.
What is the maximum length of time a nurse should allow an IV bag of solution to infuse?
- 12 hours
- 6 hours
- 18 hours
- 24 hours
Explanation: Answer reason: IV solution bags should not hang longer than 24 hours to reduce contamination and infection risk; replace the bag after 24 hours.
Which of the following techniques is recommended for removing a tick from the skin?
- Grasping the tick with a tissue and quickly jerking it away from the skin
- Placing a burning match close the tick and watching for it to release
- Using tweezers, grasp the tick close to the skin and pull the tick free using a steady, firm motion
- Covering the tick with petroleum jelly and gently rubbing the area until the tick releases
Explanation: Answer reason: Best practice is to use fine-tipped tweezers to grasp the tick close to the skin and pull upward with steady pressure. Jerking, heat, or petroleum jelly can cause regurgitation or leave mouthparts, increasing infection risk.
Which type of endotracheal tube is recommended by the Centers for Disease Control (CDC) for reducing the risk of ventilator-associated pneumonia?
- Uncuffed
- CASS
- Fenestrated
- Nasotracheal
Explanation: Answer reason: CDC recommends endotracheal tubes with subglottic secretion drainage (CASS) to reduce ventilator-associated pneumonia by removing pooled secretions above the cuff. Uncuffed increases aspiration risk; fenestrated tubes are not for ventilation/VAP prevention; nasotracheal describes route, not a VAP-reducing type.
The nurse is caring for a client after a motor vehicle accident. The client has a fractured tibia, and bone is noted protruding through the skin. Which action is of priority?
- Provide manual traction above and below the leg
- Cover the bone area with a sterile dressing
- Apply an ACE bandage around the entire lower limb
- Place the client in the prone position
Explanation: Answer reason: An open fracture is at high risk for contamination and bleeding. The priority is to cover the exposed bone with a sterile dressing to protect from infection and minimize tissue damage. Do not manipulate the limb or apply compression/ACE wrap, and positioning prone is not appropriate.
The nurse who is caring for a client with cancer notes a WBC of 500 on the laboratory results. Which intervention would be most appropriate to include in the client’s plan of care?
- Assess temperature every 4 hours because of risk for hypothermia
- Instruct the client to avoid large crowds and people who are sick
- Instruct in the use of a soft toothbrush
- Assess for hematuria
Explanation: Answer reason: A WBC of 500 indicates severe neutropenia with high infection risk. The priority intervention is to reduce exposure to pathogens by avoiding crowds and sick individuals. Option A cites hypothermia (incorrect rationale), and C/D address bleeding risk rather than infection.
A common type of nosocomial infection is?
- Gastroenteritis
- Meningitis
- Urinary tract infection
- Cellulitis
Explanation: Answer reason: Catheter-associated urinary tract infections are the most frequent hospital-acquired (nosocomial) infections; the other options are less commonly nosocomial.
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