Health Promotion-Disease Prevention Practice Test 3
Health Promotion-Disease Prevention NCLEX Practice Test
Health Promotion-Disease Prevention is a key topic within the NCLEX test plan, located under Health Promotion and Maintenance → Growth and Development → Health Promotion-Disease Prevention. This section teaches lifestyle counseling, screening, and risk reduction to promote lifelong wellness. Each test contains 50 questions designed to mirror the difficulty and variety of the real exam.
This is the 3rd part of the Health Promotion-Disease Prevention series. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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In the Health Promotion-Disease Prevention Study Cards section, shared by real NCLEX candidates, you’ll find concise summaries and high-yield insights related to the most tested concepts. It’s a perfect space to reinforce challenging topics and sharpen your recall through quick, focused repetitions. Short, powerful, and repeatable!
Health Promotion-Disease Prevention Practice Test 3
In children suspected to have a diagnosis of diabetes, which one of the following complaints would be MOST likely to prompt parents to take their school age child for evaluation?
- Polyphagia
- Dehydration
- Bed wetting
- Weight loss
Explanation: Answer reason: Nocturnal enuresis (bed wetting) from osmotic diuresis/polyuria is a conspicuous symptom that parents readily notice in a school-age child with new-onset diabetes, making it the most likely prompt for evaluation.
The major purpose of community health research is to?
- Describe the health conditions of populations
- Evaluate illness in the community
- Explain the health conditions of families
- Identify the health conditions of the environment
Explanation: Answer reason: Community health research focuses on aggregate population care; its primary goal is to describe the health status of populations.
Parents are concerned that their 11 year-old child is a very picky eater. The nurse suggests which of the following as the BEST initial approach?
- Consider a liquid supplement to increase calories
- Discuss consequences of an unbalanced diet with the child
- Provide fruit, vegetable and protein snacks
- Encourage the child to keep a daily log of foods eaten
Explanation: Answer reason: Initial intervention is education to promote healthy choices; discussing the consequences with the preadolescent fosters understanding and motivation. Supplements or food logs may be used later, but are not first-line.
What is celebrated on February 4th?
- World arthritis day
- World gout day
- World cancer day
- World diabetes day
Explanation: Answer reason: February 4 is globally recognized as World Cancer Day. Other listed days occur on different dates.
Health Canada has developed the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q). If you have been quite sedentary and considering increasing your physical activity, assessing your own level of activity, when answering yes to which of the following questions should you contact a health care professional?
- Do you feel pain in your chest when you are not doing physical activity?
- Are you currently taking diuretics or other antihypertensives?
- Do you suffer from depression?
- Do you lose your balance because of dizziness?
Explanation: Answer reason: In the PAR-Q, a yes to chest pain at rest is a red-flag requiring medical evaluation before starting or increasing physical activity.
Which of the following is NOT considered a primary prevention method?
- Pap smear
- Helmets
- Contraception
- Vaccines
Explanation: Answer reason: A Pap smear is a screening test and represents secondary prevention; helmets, contraception, and vaccines prevent disease or injury before it occurs, which is primary prevention.
What is the age limit approved in the COTPA bill for the sale of tobacco products and cigarettes in approved packaging?
- 16 years
- 18 years
- 21 years
- 25 years
Explanation: Answer reason: COTPA (Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products Act) prohibits the sale of tobacco products to persons under 18 years of age.
In the United States, which federal agency is primarily responsible for identifying communities with shortages of primary care providers?
- Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
- Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA)
- National Institutes of Health (NIH)
- Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
Explanation: Answer reason: HRSA designates Health Professional Shortage Areas (HPSAs) by analyzing population-to-provider ratios, geographic barriers, and community health indicators. These designations guide funding and program development to improve preventive and primary care access in underserved communities.
For how many working days is a dai trained?
- 30 working days
- 90 working days
- Four months
- Six months
Explanation: Answer reason: Standard community health training for traditional birth attendants (dais) spans 90 working days.
What is the most common method used for identifying community health problems?
- Lab tests
- Survey
- Camp
- Health education
Explanation: Answer reason: Surveys are the standard community needs assessment tool for identifying prevalent health problems. Lab tests, camps, and health education are interventions, not primary assessment methods.
On what principle should Community Health Nursing (CHN) be based?
- Need based.
- Population based.
- Purpose based.
- All of the above.
Explanation: Answer reason: Community Health Nursing is driven by assessed community needs, focuses on populations, and aligns with program purposes and objectives; therefore all listed principles apply.
The nurse is talking with the family of an 18 month-old newly diagnosed with retinoblastoma. A PRIORITY in communicating with the parents is?
- Discussing the need for genetic counseling
- Informing them that combined therapy is seldom effective
- Preparing for the child's permanent disfigurement
- Suggesting that total blindness may follow surgery
Explanation: Answer reason: Retinoblastoma often has a hereditary component. Priority teaching is to discuss genetic counseling and screening implications for siblings and future offspring. The other options are either inaccurate or not priority-focused.
The nurse is teaching parents of an infant about introduction of solid food to their baby. What is the FIRST food they can add to the diet?
- Vegetables
- Cereal
- Fruit
- Meats
Explanation: Answer reason: Iron-fortified cereal is introduced first in infants because it is well tolerated, easy to digest, and provides iron.
The nurse is caring for a 15 month-old child with a first episode of otitis media. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in instructions to the child's parents?
- Explain that the child should complete the full five days of antibiotics
- Provide them with handout describing care of myringotomy tubes
- Describe the tympanocentesis to detect persistent infections
- Emphasize the importance of a return visit after completion of antibiotics
Explanation: Answer reason: Follow-up after completing antibiotics is standard to assess for persistent infection or effusion. Five days is too short, tympanocentesis and myringotomy tubes are not routine for a first episode.
When teaching adolescents about sexually transmitted diseases, the nurse should emphasize that the MOST common infection is?
- Gonorrhea
- Chlamydia
- Herpes
- HIV
Explanation: Answer reason: Chlamydia is the most commonly reported sexually transmitted infection among adolescents and the general population, exceeding gonorrhea, herpes, and HIV.
The nurse is talking to parents about nutrition in school aged children. Which of the following is the MOST common nutritional disorder in this age group?
- Bulimia
- Anorexia
- Obesity
- Malnutrition
Explanation: Answer reason: Among school-aged children, obesity is the most prevalent nutritional disorder; eating disorders like anorexia and bulimia occur more often in adolescents, and frank malnutrition is less common in this group in most settings.
Based on principles of teaching and learning, what is the best INITIAL approach to pre-op teaching for a client scheduled for coronary artery bypass?
- Touring the coronary intensive unit
- Mailing a video tape to the home
- Assessing the client's learning style
- Administering a written pre-test
Explanation: Answer reason: Teaching begins with assessment. Determining the client’s learning style/readiness guides how to provide effective preoperative education; the other options are implementation steps that may follow.
The nurse is teaching a class on HIV prevention. Which of the following should be emphasized as increasing risk?
- Donating blood
- Using public bathrooms
- Unprotected sex
- Touching a person with AIDS
Explanation: Answer reason: HIV is transmitted through exposure to infected bodily fluids; unprotected sexual intercourse is a primary high-risk behavior. Donating blood uses sterile, screened procedures, and casual contact or public bathrooms do not transmit HIV.
What is the best method for child spacing?
- Calendar method
- Vaginal diaphragm
- IUD
- Tubectomy
Explanation: Answer reason: An IUD is a highly effective long-acting reversible contraceptive suitable for spacing births; calendar and diaphragm methods are less effective, and tubectomy is permanent for limiting, not spacing.
Which method is a barrier method?
- Copper
- Injectable
- Pills
- Condom
Explanation: Answer reason: Condoms physically block sperm from reaching the egg, making them a barrier method. Copper is an intrauterine device, and injectables and pills are hormonal methods.
Which method is a female permanent family planning method?
- Oral pills
- DMPA
- IUD
- Tubectomy
Explanation: Answer reason: Tubectomy is female sterilization and a permanent contraceptive method. Oral pills, DMPA, and IUD are reversible methods.
What is the appropriate place of care for a baby with a rehabilitation condition?
- Home
- Secondary level hospital
- Tertiary level hospital
- Any of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: Babies requiring rehabilitation typically need specialized pediatric services available only in tertiary-level hospitals, where multidisciplinary teams and advanced resources are present.
Which teaching instruction is MOST important for a client diagnosed with congestive heart failure (CHF)?
- Take loop diuretics right before bedtime
- Notify the provider for a weight gain of more than 2 lb in 24 hours
- Eat foods high in sodium to maintain fluid balance
- Sleep completely flat to improve breathing
- Avoid all forms of exercise
Explanation: Answer reason: Sudden weight gain indicates fluid retention and worsening heart failure, requiring immediate evaluation to prevent pulmonary edema and decompensation.
A nurse is teaching a group of women about menopause. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?
- “Hot flashes are a common symptom during menopause.”
- “I won’t need Pap smears anymore after menopause.”
- “Calcium and vitamin D are important to prevent bone loss.”
- “Menopause increases my risk for cardiovascular disease.”
Explanation: Answer reason: Cervical cancer screening may still be required after menopause depending on age, prior results, and guidelines. Stopping Pap smears solely because menopause has occurred reflects a misunderstanding and increases the risk of delayed cancer detection. The other statements are accurate.
Which date is recognized in the United States as National Blood Donor Month to promote voluntary blood donation?
- January
- March
- June
- October
Explanation: Answer reason: In the United States, January is designated as National Blood Donor Month by the American Red Cross and federal public health agencies. It promotes awareness of the ongoing need for blood donation, especially during winter months when donor turnout typically decreases.
The most efficent media of health education?
- Pamphlet
- Poster
- Television
- Radio
Explanation: Answer reason: Television is the most effective medium for health education because it combines audio and visual cues, allowing demonstration and modeling of desired behaviors. It captures attention and improves comprehension and recall across diverse literacy levels. Pamphlets and posters are limited by literacy and engagement, and radio lacks visual demonstration.
Condom prevents ______?
- Pregnancy
- STDs
- HIV
- All of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: Condoms are barrier devices that prevent sperm from entering the reproductive tract, reducing the risk of pregnancy. They also limit exchange of genital secretions, thereby lowering transmission of sexually transmitted infections, including HIV, when used consistently and correctly. While not 100% effective and offering less protection for infections spread by uncovered skin, they provide protection across all listed outcomes.
In a typical U.S. rural Primary Care Service Area (PCSA), approximately how many residents are served by one primary care provider?
- 500
- 1,500
- 3,500
- 10,000
Explanation: Answer reason: According to HRSA primary care population-to-provider ratios, rural Primary Care Service Areas frequently have one primary care provider covering roughly 3,000–3,500 residents. This figure reflects realistic U.S. workforce distribution patterns and is used in determining areas with potential provider shortages.
An irreversible contraceptive method in female is?
- Tubal ligation
- Permanent insertion of IUCD
- Oral pills
- Divorce from husband
Explanation: Answer reason: Female sterilization via tubal ligation disrupts the fallopian tubes, preventing ovum-sperm meeting and is intended to be permanent and irreversible. Intrauterine contraceptive devices are long-acting but reversible upon removal. Oral pills are fully reversible once discontinued. "Divorce" is not a medical contraceptive method.
Which method is 100% safe for birth control?
- Condom
- Vasectomy
- Safe period
- None
Explanation: Answer reason: No contraceptive method is 100% effective except complete abstinence, which is not listed. Condoms and fertility-awareness methods (safe period) have notable failure rates with typical use. Even vasectomy, while highly effective, can fail due to rare recanalization or inadequate follow-up to confirm azoospermia. Therefore, among the options given, none are 100% safe.
The most important non-modifiable risk factor for NCD is?
- Smoking
- Age
- Obesity
- Alcohol
Explanation: Answer reason: Age is a non-modifiable risk factor and one of the strongest predictors for many noncommunicable diseases, including cardiovascular disease, cancer, and diabetes. Smoking, obesity, and alcohol use are modifiable lifestyle factors that can be changed to reduce risk. Because age cannot be altered and risk rises markedly with advancing age, it is the most important non-modifiable factor.
The definition of health given by WHO includes all of the following dimensions except?
- Mental
- Physical
- Vocational
- Social
Explanation: Answer reason: WHO defines health as a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, not merely the absence of disease or infirmity. The recognized dimensions are physical, mental, and social. Vocational wellness is included in some holistic models but is not part of the WHO definition. Therefore, the exception is Vocational.
The most preventable cause of cancer worldwide is?
- Obesity
- Tobacco use
- Radiation
- Alcohol
Explanation: Answer reason: Tobacco use is the single largest preventable cause of cancer worldwide, responsible for roughly one-third of cancer deaths. Carcinogens in tobacco smoke cause DNA damage and promote cancers of the lung, head and neck, esophagus, bladder, pancreas, and others. Smoking cessation and avoidance of secondhand smoke substantially reduce cancer risk, exceeding the impact of obesity, alcohol, or radiation at the population level.
To prevent UTI, one should drink plenty of _____?
- Water
- Tea
- Coffee
- Cold drink
Explanation: Answer reason: High fluid intake increases urine output and flushes bacteria from the urinary tract, lowering the risk of colonization and infection. Plain water provides hydration without bladder irritants. Tea and coffee contain caffeine, which can irritate the bladder, and sugary soft drinks may also irritate or promote bacterial growth. Therefore, water is the preferred choice for UTI prevention.
The national program in India for malaria control is?
- RNTCP
- NVBDCP
- NPCDCS
- NACO
Explanation: Answer reason: NVBDCP (National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme) is India’s integrated program for prevention and control of vector-borne diseases, including malaria. RNTCP targets tuberculosis, NPCDCS addresses non-communicable diseases like diabetes and cardiovascular disease, and NACO focuses on HIV/AIDS control. Therefore, NVBDCP is the correct program for malaria control.
Emergency contraceptive pills are taken within _____ hours of unprotected sex?
- 24
- 48
- 72
- 96
Explanation: Answer reason: Levonorgestrel emergency contraception is most effective when taken as soon as possible and is recommended within 72 hours (3 days) after unprotected intercourse. Efficacy decreases with time but it still offers benefit up to this window. Ulipristal or a copper IUD can be used up to 120 hours, but standard oral EC guidance emphasizes the 72-hour timeframe for levonorgestrel products.
Male condom also helps in preventing ______?
- Malaria
- HIV
- Tuberculosis
- Cancer
Explanation: Answer reason: Male condoms act as a physical barrier that prevents exchange of semen and vaginal fluids, thereby reducing transmission of sexually transmitted infections, including HIV. They do not prevent vector-borne diseases like malaria or airborne infections like tuberculosis. While condom use may lower risk of some HPV-related cancers, it is not a general cancer prevention method. Therefore, HIV is the best answer.
A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a patient with peripheral artery disease. Which lifestyle modifications should be emphasized?
- Increase dietary sodium intake.
- Avoid all forms of exercise.
- Quit smoking immediately.
- Restrict fluid intake.
Explanation: Answer reason: Smoking is the most significant modifiable risk factor for peripheral artery disease because nicotine causes vasoconstriction and endothelial injury, worsening ischemia. Cessation improves circulation and reduces cardiovascular events. Exercise, particularly supervised walking, is usually encouraged rather than avoided. Sodium or fluid restriction are not primary PAD lifestyle recommendations unless otherwise indicated by comorbidities.
Injectable contraceptives are effective for _____ months?
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 6
Explanation: Answer reason: The commonly used injectable contraceptive, depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA), provides reliable contraception for 12 weeks, i.e., 3 months. Reinjection is recommended every 3 months to maintain efficacy. While another formulation (NET-EN) is dosed every 2 months in some regions, standard practice and most exams reference DMPA's 3‑month effectiveness.
The natural method of family planning is _____?
- Condom
- Safe period
- Pills
- IUCD
Explanation: Answer reason: Natural family planning relies on identifying the fertile and infertile phases of the menstrual cycle and avoiding intercourse during the fertile window, commonly called the safe-period or rhythm method. Condoms are barrier methods, pills are hormonal contraceptives, and IUCDs are intrauterine devices—none of which are natural methods. Therefore, the safe period is the correct choice.
Family planning means controlling ______?
- Birth rate
- Death rate
- Diseases
- Population migration
Explanation: Answer reason: Family planning encompasses educational, medical, and social strategies that allow individuals or couples to determine the number and spacing of their children, primarily through contraception and fertility awareness. These actions directly regulate the birth rate. They do not primarily target mortality, infectious disease control, or population movement.
Family planning is also called ______?
- Population education
- Birth control
- Maternal care
- Public health
Explanation: Answer reason: Family planning refers to practices that help individuals or couples achieve desired timing and number of children, primarily through contraceptive methods—commonly termed birth control. Population education is a broader public health education concept, not the direct practice. Maternal care focuses on care during pregnancy and childbirth, and public health is an overall field, not a synonym.
The spacing between two children is known as ______?
- Birth gap
- Birth spacing
- Birth control
- Family interval
Explanation: Answer reason: The term for the interval between successive births is commonly called "birth spacing." It specifically refers to planned timing between pregnancies/children to optimize maternal recovery and child health outcomes. "Birth control" refers to methods used to prevent pregnancy, not the interval itself, and "birth gap"/"family interval" are less standard terms in public health and nursing education.
The main purpose of family planning is to _______?
- Increase fertility
- Reduce fertility
- Promote population growth
- Increase mortality
Explanation: Answer reason: Family planning primarily aims to help individuals and couples decide if and when to have children by preventing unintended pregnancy. This is achieved through contraceptive methods and fertility awareness approaches that reduce the likelihood of conception. While some services may include infertility counseling, the core public health purpose of family planning programs is fertility regulation to limit or space births. Therefore, reducing fertility is the best answer.
Who’s mpower strategy is associated with?
- Tobacco control
- Alcohol control
- Diabetes prevention
- Cancer management
Explanation: Answer reason: WHO’s MPOWER is a package of six evidence-based tobacco control measures aligned with the WHO Framework Convention on Tobacco Control. It includes Monitoring tobacco use, Protecting people from tobacco smoke, Offering help to quit, Warning about dangers, Enforcing bans on advertising/promotion/sponsorship, and Raising taxes. Therefore, it specifically targets tobacco control rather than alcohol, diabetes, or cancer management.
Which of the following is a behavioral risk factor of NCD?
- Hypertension
- Tobacco use
- Hyperlipidemia
- Genetic factors
Explanation: Answer reason: Behavioral risk factors are modifiable lifestyle behaviors that increase the risk of noncommunicable diseases (NCDs). Tobacco use is a classic behavioral risk factor linked to cardiovascular disease, cancer, chronic lung disease, and stroke. Hypertension and hyperlipidemia are physiological/clinical conditions, and genetic factors are non-modifiable.
Safe period method for avoiding pregnancy is based on?
- Menstrual cycle
- Use of hormones
- Use of condoms
- Withdrawal method
Explanation: Answer reason: The safe period (rhythm/calendar) method is a natural family planning technique based on identifying fertile and infertile days in the menstrual cycle. It relies on predicting ovulation timing and avoiding unprotected intercourse during the fertile window. Hormones and condoms are different contraceptive methods, and withdrawal is coitus interruptus rather than a cycle-based method.
When the arm circumference strip reads yellow it means that the?
- Baby is malnourished.
- Baby is below his age group.
- Baby is well feed.
- Baby is probably malnourished.
Explanation: Answer reason: A mid-upper arm circumference (MUAC) color strip is a screening tool for acute malnutrition. Yellow typically indicates moderate acute malnutrition or borderline nutritional status, meaning the child is at risk and needs further assessment and nutritional support. Red would indicate severe acute malnutrition, while green suggests normal status. Therefore, yellow best matches “probably malnourished” rather than a definitive diagnosis.
Which of these is a preventive measure for Hepatitis A?
- Avoid mosquito bites
- Good sanitation and hygiene
- Regular exercise
- Low salt diet
Explanation: Answer reason: Hepatitis A is transmitted primarily by the fecal–oral route, commonly through contaminated food or water or poor hand hygiene. Therefore, preventive measures focus on sanitation, safe food/water practices, and good personal hygiene (especially handwashing). Avoiding mosquito bites is relevant to vector-borne diseases, not hepatitis A. Regular exercise and a low-salt diet do not specifically prevent HAV transmission.
Exclusive breast feeding is done?
- 2 months
- 4 months
- 6 months
- 12 months
Explanation: Answer reason: Exclusive breastfeeding is recommended for the first 6 months of life, meaning the infant receives only breast milk (no other liquids or solids except prescribed medicines/supplements). This supports optimal growth, immunity, and reduces infection risk. After 6 months, complementary foods are introduced while continuing breastfeeding.
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