Question 1

Which of these is used to check a baby's heartbeat in the womb?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason:A fetoscope is a specialized instrument used during pregnancy to directly auscultate the fetal heartbeat through the maternal abdomen. It is designed to detect fetal heart tones more clearly than a standard stethoscope.

Question 2

Instrument to detect fetal heart sound is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A fetoscope is specifically designed to detect fetal heart sounds by direct abdominal auscultation. Unlike CTG (which detects fetal heart rate electronically), the fetoscope is the correct instrument for listening to actual fetal heart tones.

Question 3

The nurse practicing in a maternity setting recognizes that neonatal sepsis is MOST often related to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Neonatal sepsis is most strongly associated with prolonged rupture of membranes, because the loss of the protective amniotic barrier allows ascending bacteria from the birth canal to enter the uterus. The risk increases significantly after 18 hours of membrane rupture.

Question 4

What drugs are safe to use during pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Iron and folic acid are safe and routinely recommended during pregnancy. They prevent maternal anemia and reduce the risk of neural tube defects. The other options are unsafe: valproic acid is teratogenic, atenolol may cause fetal growth restriction, and tetracycline damages fetal bones and teeth.

Question 5

Minimum antenatal visit as per MCH is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Maternal and Child Health (MCH) guidelines recommend a minimum of 4 antenatal visits to ensure early identification of risks, monitoring fetal growth, providing supplements, and offering essential education and screening throughout pregnancy.

Question 6

Minimum anc visit during pregnancy should be?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Modern WHO guidelines (2016 update) recommend a minimum of 8 ANC contacts.
However, many national MCH programs and older ANC standards interpret this as “around 9 total visits” across pregnancy (monthly, biweekly, and weekly in the final month). Therefore, among the given choices, 9 is the closest and correct minimum number.

Question 7

By the end of which month does morning sickness usually disappear?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Nausea and vomiting of pregnancy typically peak around 9 weeks and resolve by 12–14 weeks, which is the end of the third month.

Question 8

You are visiting a 30-year-old mother called Melkenesh who had her baby seven days ago. The last time you saw her, she was lying in bed. This time she gets up to greet you, and you notice that she is limping. You ask her if she has hurt herself. She mentions a sudden ache in one of her legs. What would you suspect?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Postpartum clients are hypercoagulable, and recent bed rest increases the risk. Sudden unilateral leg pain or limping is classic for DVT.

Question 9

A client telephones the emergency room, stating she thinks she is in labor. The nurse should tell the client that labor has probably begun when?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: True labor is suggested by regular, progressive contractions about every 5 minutes (5-1-1 rule). Back pain with bloody discharge or abdominal discomfort with urinary frequency is nonspecific; 2-minute intervals indicate advanced labor.

Question 10

A client with HELLP syndrome is admitted to the labor and delivery unit for observation. The nurse knows that the client will have elevated?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: HELLP stands for hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. Therefore, elevated liver enzymes are expected; the other listed labs are not characteristically increased.

Question 11

An obstetric client has just been diagnosed with cardiac disease. The nurse should give priority to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: For pregnant clients with cardiac disease, early detection of decompensation is critical. Monitoring pulse and respirations helps identify increasing cardiac workload and impending heart failure. Strict bed rest is not routinely required, evening temperature checks are not a priority, and monthly weights are too infrequent.

Question 12

Which of the following conditions can lead to a small-for-gestational-age fetus because of decreased blood supply?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Maternal cardiac disease can reduce uteroplacental perfusion, limiting oxygen and nutrient delivery to the fetus and causing intrauterine growth restriction (SGA). Diabetes typically causes LGA, premature labor affects gestational age, not growth, and abruptio placenta is an acute event leading to fetal distress rather than chronic growth restriction.

Question 13

Which of the following is a characteristic of a reassuring fetal heart rate pattern?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Fetal heart rate accelerations with movement reflect adequate oxygenation and normal autonomic function, indicating a reassuring fetal status.

Question 14

Which condition is associated with late decelerations on a fetal monitoring strip?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Late decelerations reflect uteroplacental insufficiency and fetal hypoxia; variable decelerations indicate cord compression; and early decelerations are due to head compression or vagal stimulation.

Question 15

After delivery of the fetus, the placenta should be removed by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Placental delivery in the third stage of labor should be done with controlled cord traction as part of active management to reduce postpartum hemorrhage. Fundal pressure risks uterine inversion. Manual removal is for retained placenta, and waiting for spontaneous expulsion is not the recommended active approach.

Question 16

How many days does the puerperium period last for lochia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Normal lochial discharge after delivery typically continues for about two to three weeks and commonly ceases around 20 days.

Question 17

Which of the following clinical presentations would a nurse expect while assessing a patient with placental abruption?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Placental abruption typically presents with painful uterine tenderness and hypertonus, producing a rigid, board-like abdomen. Vaginal bleeding may be minimal or concealed; edema in the legs and PROM are not characteristic findings.

Question 18

Up to how many weeks is a medical abortion typically performed?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Medical abortion with mifepristone and misoprostol is most commonly provided in early pregnancy, typically up to about 8 weeks’ gestation; beyond this, its efficacy declines and the need for additional intervention increases.

Question 19

W/o Nuhamen is a 28-year-old primigravida who came to you for ANC at 12 weeks. When you did an HIV test, you got a positive result. What is the correct management for this mother?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pregnant clients who test HIV-positive should start lifelong antiretroviral therapy as soon as possible, regardless of gestational age, to reduce maternal viral load and prevent vertical transmission.

Question 20

A client in labor admits to having used alcohol throughout the pregnancy. The most recent use was the day before. Based on the client's history, the nurse should give priority to assessing the newborn for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Maternal alcohol use can cause neonatal withdrawal shortly after birth, which commonly presents with tremors and jitteriness. Respiratory depression is more associated with opioid exposure, and wide- or low-set eyes are congenital features rather than immediate priority findings.

Question 21

Which of the following is the hallmark symptom of abruptio placentae?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Placental abruption presents with painful vaginal bleeding, uterine tenderness, and a firm, rigid, hypertonic uterus. Bright red, painless bleeding with a soft uterus suggests placenta previa.

Question 22

What is the normal amount of amniotic fluid at term?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: At term, the normal amniotic fluid volume is approximately 800 mL; much lower values suggest oligohydramnios, and higher values suggest polyhydramnios.

Question 23

What is the daily folic acid requirement for pregnant women?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The recommendation for women who are pregnant or planning a pregnancy is 400 mcg of folic acid daily to reduce neural tube defects.

Question 24

Fetal indications for operative vaginal delivery?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Only a nonreassuring fetal heart-rate pattern is a fetal indication to expedite birth with operative vaginal delivery. The other options describe maternal indications (avoiding Valsalva for maternal disease; prolonged second stage due to poor maternal effort), so 'All' is incorrect.

Question 25

The nurse practicing in a maternity setting recognizes that the postmature infant is at risk due to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Post-term pregnancies (>42 weeks) are associated with declining placental function, leading to fetal hypoxia and sequelae; thus, the primary risk factor is progressive placental insufficiency.

Question 26

A client asks the nurse about including her 2- and 12-year-old sons in the care of their newborn sister. Which of the following is an appropriate initial statement by the nurse?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Early postpartum guidance focuses on minimizing sibling rivalry by reassuring and meeting the needs of the older children, affirming that they remain important. The other options assign tasks or shift responsibility and are not the initial priority.

Question 27

As the client reaches 8 cm dilation, the nurse notes a pattern on the fetal monitor that shows a drop in the fetal heart rate of 30 bpm, beginning at the peak of the contraction and ending at the end of the contraction. The FHR baseline is 165–175 bpm with variability of 0–2 bpm. What is the most likely explanation of this pattern?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Decelerations that begin around the peak of a contraction and recover after the contraction ends are late decelerations, indicating uteroplacental insufficiency. The tachycardia with minimal or absent variability further supports fetal compromise.

Question 28

The nurse notes variable decelerations on the fetal monitor strip. The most appropriate initial action would be to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Variable decelerations are typically due to umbilical cord compression. The initial priority intervention is to change the maternal position (e.g., side-lying) to relieve compression. Other actions may follow if unresolved.

Question 29

In the second stage of labor, how long do uterine contractions typically last?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: During the second stage of labor, contractions are strong and typically last about 60–90 seconds. Among the options, 60 seconds is the most representative duration.

Question 30

In which week is the Hegar sign typically seen during pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hegar sign (softening of the lower uterine segment) is typically noted at about 6–8 weeks' gestation; the best matching option provided is 4–8 weeks.

Question 31

Which clients admitted to the postpartum unit are at increased risk for developing puerperal infection?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Repeated vaginal examinations increase the risk of introducing microorganisms into the birth canal, leading to endometritis or wound infection. Proper aseptic technique and limiting unnecessary exams reduce this risk.

Question 32

Which of these is not a symptom of an ectopic pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ectopic pregnancy commonly presents with abdominal or pelvic pain and vaginal bleeding; nausea and vomiting may occur in early pregnancy. Diarrhoea is not a typical symptom of ectopic pregnancy.

Question 33

Folic acid is usually prescribed for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Folic acid supplementation is recommended before conception and during early pregnancy to prevent neural tube defects and reduce the risk of megaloblastic anemia.

Question 34

The nurse is caring for a postpartum client. Which of the following assessment findings would be a cause for concern during the client's postpartum stay?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Lochia should progress from rubra to serosa to alba. A return to rubra after serosa suggests subinvolution or late postpartum hemorrhage and warrants concern. The other findings (pulse 70–90, diuresis, and diaphoresis on days 2–3) are expected postpartum.

Question 35

The nurse assesses a client's fundal height every 15 minutes during the first hour postpartum. The height of the fundus during this hour should be?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: During the first postpartum hour, the uterus should be firm and at the level of the umbilicus or slightly below (U to U−1/−2). Thus, 1–2 fingerbreadths under the umbilicus are expected.

Question 36

During which stage of labor is the placenta delivered?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The third stage of labor begins after the birth of the baby and ends with delivery of the placenta.

Question 37

A client is in the third month of her first pregnancy. During the interview, she tells the nurse that she has several sexual partners and is unsure of the identity of the baby's father. Which of the following nursing interventions is a PRIORITY?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pregnant client with multiple partners is high risk for HIV. Prompt HIV screening is the priority to identify infection early and initiate therapy to reduce maternal morbidity and vertical transmission.

Question 38

The nurse is providing postpartum teaching to a mother planning to breastfeed her infant. Which of the client's statements indicates a need for additional teaching?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Breastfeeding mothers should increase hydration (about 8–10 glasses or ~2–3 L/day). Four glasses is inadequate, indicating a need for further teaching. The other statements are appropriate.

Question 39

Which of the following statements is true about drug use during pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Many drugs cross the placenta and act as teratogens, causing congenital anomalies and long-term effects; the other statements are incorrect.

Question 40

If LMP is 25 June 2018, then what is the EDD?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Use Naegele’s rule: add 7 days and subtract 3 months from the LMP (add 1 year if needed). 25 June 2018 + 7 days = 2 July 2018; −3 months = 2 April 2019. Therefore EDD is 2 April 2019.

Question 41

In which trimester did the heartbeat start?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Fetal cardiac activity begins about 4–5 weeks of gestation, which is in the first trimester.

Question 42

Which of the following clinical presentations would a nurse expect while assessing a patient with placental abruption?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Placental abruption causes painful uterine tenderness and hypertonicity with a rigid, board-like abdomen due to concealed bleeding. Leg edema is nonspecific (more typical of preeclampsia), external bleeding may be minimal, and PROM is unrelated.

Question 43

Breastfeeding should begin within ... hours after a caesarean delivery.?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: After cesarean birth, breastfeeding should start as early as possible when the mother is stable and alert—typically within about 4 hours—to promote bonding and lactogenesis.

Question 44

All of the following are advantages of breastfeeding except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Breastfeeding supports mother–infant bonding, improves infant health, and reduces maternal breast cancer risk. A change in breast shape is not a benefit.

Question 45

Which of the following is a contraindication to breastfeeding?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Active, untreated maternal tuberculosis is an absolute contraindication to direct breastfeeding until the mother has been treated; breast milk may be expressed. Hepatitis A and B are not contraindications (infant receives immunoprophylaxis for HBV), and CMV is generally not a contraindication in term infants.

Question 46

Anti D should be given following Rh+ve delivery within?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: For an Rh-negative mother after delivering an Rh-positive infant, anti-D immunoglobulin should be administered within 72 hours postpartum to prevent Rh sensitization.

Question 47

Screening tests used in antenatal mothers in RCH II is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Routine RCH II antenatal screening includes hemoglobin estimation, blood group/Rh typing, and urine testing; TSH screening is not part of the standard RCH II panel.

Question 48

The nurse is measuring the duration of the client's contractions. Which statement is true regarding the measurement of the duration of contractions?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Duration of a uterine contraction is timed from the start to the end of the same contraction. Beginning-to-beginning is frequency; end-to-beginning is the interval; peak-to-end is incorrect.

Question 49

A 24-year-old G2P1 woman presents at 36 weeks' gestation in active labor and her Group B Streptococcus (GBS) culture is not available; what is the most appropriate management?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: According to CDC and ACOG guidelines, if a pregnant woman presents in active labor and her GBS culture status is unknown, intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended when any risk factor is present — such as preterm labor (

Question 50

During which stage of labor, the placenta is delivered?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The third stage of labor begins after birth of the baby and ends with separation and delivery of the placenta.

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Which of these is used to check a baby's heartbeat in the womb?

Instrument to detect fetal heart sound is?

The nurse practicing in a maternity setting recognizes that neonatal sepsis is MOST often related to?

What drugs are safe to use during pregnancy?

Minimum antenatal visit as per MCH is?

Minimum anc visit during pregnancy should be?

By the end of which month does morning sickness usually disappear?

A client telephones the emergency room, stating she thinks she is in labor. The nurse should tell the client that labor has probably begun when?

A client with HELLP syndrome is admitted to the labor and delivery unit for observation. The nurse knows that the client will have elevated?

An obstetric client has just been diagnosed with cardiac disease. The nurse should give priority to?

Which of the following conditions can lead to a small-for-gestational-age fetus because of decreased blood supply?

Which of the following is a characteristic of a reassuring fetal heart rate pattern?

Which condition is associated with late decelerations on a fetal monitoring strip?

After delivery of the fetus, the placenta should be removed by?

How many days does the puerperium period last for lochia?

Which of the following clinical presentations would a nurse expect while assessing a patient with placental abruption?

Up to how many weeks is a medical abortion typically performed?

W/o Nuhamen is a 28-year-old primigravida who came to you for ANC at 12 weeks. When you did an HIV test, you got a positive result. What is the correct management for this mother?

A client in labor admits to having used alcohol throughout the pregnancy. The most recent use was the day before. Based on the client's history, the nurse should give priority to assessing the newborn for?

Which of the following is the hallmark symptom of abruptio placentae?

What is the normal amount of amniotic fluid at term?

What is the daily folic acid requirement for pregnant women?

Fetal indications for operative vaginal delivery?

The nurse practicing in a maternity setting recognizes that the postmature infant is at risk due to?

A client asks the nurse about including her 2- and 12-year-old sons in the care of their newborn sister. Which of the following is an appropriate initial statement by the nurse?

The nurse notes variable decelerations on the fetal monitor strip. The most appropriate initial action would be to?

In the second stage of labor, how long do uterine contractions typically last?

In which week is the Hegar sign typically seen during pregnancy?

Which clients admitted to the postpartum unit are at increased risk for developing puerperal infection?

Which of these is not a symptom of an ectopic pregnancy?

Folic acid is usually prescribed for?

The nurse is caring for a postpartum client. Which of the following assessment findings would be a cause for concern during the client's postpartum stay?

The nurse assesses a client's fundal height every 15 minutes during the first hour postpartum. The height of the fundus during this hour should be?

During which stage of labor is the placenta delivered?

A client is in the third month of her first pregnancy. During the interview, she tells the nurse that she has several sexual partners and is unsure of the identity of the baby's father. Which of the following nursing interventions is a PRIORITY?

The nurse is providing postpartum teaching to a mother planning to breastfeed her infant. Which of the client's statements indicates a need for additional teaching?

Which of the following statements is true about drug use during pregnancy?

If LMP is 25 June 2018, then what is the EDD?

In which trimester did the heartbeat start?

Which of the following clinical presentations would a nurse expect while assessing a patient with placental abruption?

Breastfeeding should begin within ... hours after a caesarean delivery.?

All of the following are advantages of breastfeeding except?

Which of the following is a contraindication to breastfeeding?

Anti D should be given following Rh+ve delivery within?

Screening tests used in antenatal mothers in RCH II is?

The nurse is measuring the duration of the client's contractions. Which statement is true regarding the measurement of the duration of contractions?

A 24-year-old G2P1 woman presents at 36 weeks' gestation in active labor and her Group B Streptococcus (GBS) culture is not available; what is the most appropriate management?

During which stage of labor, the placenta is delivered?

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