Question 1

How many bones are there in an adult human body?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The standard anatomical count for an adult human skeleton is 206 bones. This number reflects fusion of some bones that are separate at birth (e.g., parts of the skull and the sacrum) into single bones in adulthood. While minor variation can occur (such as accessory bones), 206 is the accepted reference value used in education and clinical contexts.
Category reason: This is a factual question about the normal number of bones in the adult skeleton, which is a core topic in Anatomy rather than nursing clinical judgment.

Question 2

The outer membrane of the nucleus is continuous with which organelle?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The nuclear envelope has two membranes, and the outer nuclear membrane is physically continuous with the membrane of the rough endoplasmic reticulum. This continuity also explains why ribosomes can be found on the cytosolic surface of the outer nuclear membrane, similar to rough ER. The perinuclear space is continuous with the ER lumen, supporting transport and protein processing pathways.
Category reason: This tests a core cell-structure relationship (nuclear envelope continuity with the ER), which is foundational microscopic anatomy/cell biology rather than clinical nursing decision-making.

Question 3

Robert Brown is known for the discovery of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Robert Brown first described the nucleus in plant cells in 1831, recognizing it as a distinct, dense structure within the cell. This discovery was foundational for modern cell biology because it identified a key organelle responsible for housing genetic material and regulating cellular activities. The other listed structures were described by different scientists and at later dates.
Category reason: This is a basic cell biology question about identifying which cellular structure was discovered by a specific scientist, which fits foundational Anatomy content rather than nursing clinical decision-making.

Question 4

Periosteum is absent over the following except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Periosteum generally covers the external surface of bones and is absent where bone is covered by articular cartilage and where tendons/ligaments insert (these attachment areas blend with fibrous tissue rather than being covered by a typical periosteal layer). Sesamoid bones, being embedded within tendons, also do not have periosteum over the tendon-contacting surfaces. The outer table of a flat bone is an external bony surface and is therefore covered by periosteum, making it the exception.
Category reason: This item tests knowledge of bone coverings and specific anatomical locations where periosteum is present or absent, which is a core Anatomy concept rather than a nursing-care decision.

Question 5

The protective covering around the heart is called.....?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The heart is enclosed by a double-walled fibroserous sac that protects it, anchors it within the mediastinum, and provides lubrication to reduce friction during cardiac motion. The pleura surrounds the lungs, not the heart. The epicardium is the visceral layer of the serous pericardium and is part of the heart wall, while the myocardium is the muscular middle layer responsible for contraction.
Category reason: This question tests identification of the anatomical covering of the heart, which is a structural body component rather than a nursing intervention or clinical decision.

Question 6

The horizontal fissure is found in ________.?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The right lung has two fissures: an oblique fissure and a horizontal fissure, which divides the superior and middle lobes. The left lung typically has only an oblique fissure because it has two lobes and accommodates the cardiac notch. Therefore, a horizontal fissure is an anatomic feature specific to the right lung in standard human anatomy.
Category reason: This item tests structural anatomy of the lungs (lobes and fissures), which is foundational human Anatomy rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 7

The rib cage in humans is made up of –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Humans typically have 12 pairs (24 total) ribs that articulate posteriorly with the thoracic vertebrae. The first 7 pairs are true ribs attaching directly to the sternum via costal cartilage, ribs 8–10 are false ribs attaching indirectly, and ribs 11–12 are floating ribs without anterior attachment. This standard anatomic count defines the normal human rib cage framework protecting thoracic organs and aiding respiration.
Category reason: This question tests a basic structural fact about the human skeleton (number of ribs), which is a core topic in Anatomy rather than patient-care decision-making.

Question 8

The voice box is also known as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The structure commonly called the “voice box” is the larynx, which houses the vocal cords (vocal folds) responsible for sound production (phonation). It sits between the pharynx and the trachea and also helps protect the airway during swallowing via the epiglottis and coordinated closure of the glottis. The pharynx is a shared passage for air/food, the trachea is the windpipe, and bronchi are lower airway branches—none are the primary organ of voice production.
Category reason: This is a foundational identification question about anatomical structures of the upper airway, not a nursing care decision, so it fits Anatomy under NursingScience.

Question 9

......Also called/knee cap.।

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The kneecap is the patella, a sesamoid bone embedded within the quadriceps tendon that articulates with the femur at the knee joint. It protects the anterior knee and increases the mechanical leverage of the quadriceps during knee extension. The other options are different long bones: tibia and fibula are in the leg, and ulna is in the forearm.
Category reason: This is a direct identification of a named bone (kneecap) among skeletal options, which is core human Anatomy rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 10

What is the largest gland in human body?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The liver is the largest gland in the human body, serving major exocrine functions (bile production) and numerous metabolic and synthetic roles. The pancreas is also a gland but is smaller. Kidneys are organs with endocrine functions but are not classified as glands in this context, and the gallbladder is a storage organ rather than a gland.
Category reason: This is a structural fact about a major organ classified as a gland, which is primarily covered under human anatomy rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 11

Thyroid gland is located in the?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The thyroid is an anterior neck endocrine gland that lies just below the larynx and in front of the upper trachea, with two lateral lobes connected by an isthmus. This anatomic position explains why thyroid enlargement can cause visible neck swelling and compressive symptoms such as dysphagia or hoarseness. The other locations listed do not match the normal anatomic placement of the thyroid.
Category reason: This item tests the anatomic location of a gland (body structure and where it is found), which is best classified under Anatomy rather than nursing care decisions.

Question 12

The thoracic cavity and abdominal cavity is separated by ;?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: a) Diaphragm The thoracic and abdominal cavities are separated by the diaphragm, a dome-shaped skeletal muscle forming the floor of the thorax and the roof of the abdomen. It plays a key role in respiration and serves as the primary anatomical partition between these two major body cavities. Intercostal muscles lie between ribs within the thoracic wall, and ribs form the thoracic cage, but neither creates the dividing boundary between thorax and abdomen. Therefore, “all of the above” is incorrect.
Category reason: This question tests identification of the anatomical structure that separates two body cavities, which is a core topic in gross Anatomy rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 13

What is the nuclear envelope composed of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The nuclear envelope consists of an inner and an outer membrane, each a lipid bilayer, separated by the perinuclear space. The outer membrane is continuous with the rough endoplasmic reticulum, explaining shared features like ribosome attachment on its cytosolic surface. Nuclear pore complexes span both membranes to regulate transport between nucleus and cytoplasm, supporting the concept of a double-membrane structure rather than a single layer or protein sheet.
Category reason: This question tests the structural composition of a cell organelle (the nuclear envelope), which is a foundational cell structure topic within Anatomy rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 14

The subarachnoid space is between the arachnoid mater and the ________.?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The subarachnoid space lies deep to the arachnoid mater and superficial to the pia mater, and it contains cerebrospinal fluid and major cerebral vessels. The dura mater is superficial to the arachnoid and is separated from it by the (potential) subdural space. Epidermis and skull are not meningeal layers and are not involved in defining subarachnoid anatomy.
Category reason: This item tests knowledge of the anatomical meningeal layers and the spaces between them, which is a core Anatomy concept rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 15

Which of the following joints is immovable?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Fibrous joints are connected by dense connective tissue and typically allow little to no movement, as in skull sutures. Synovial joints are freely movable (diarthroses) and include ball-and-socket joints, making those options incorrect. Cartilaginous joints generally allow slight movement (amphiarthroses), such as between vertebral bodies.
Category reason: This question tests classification of joint types and their mobility, which is a core topic in Anatomy.

Question 16

The middle portion of the human sperm contains

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The sperm midpiece is packed with these organelles to generate ATP needed for flagellar movement and motility. The nucleus is located in the head, while the centriole is associated with the neck region near the base of the head. The midpiece’s structural design supports efficient energy production to power propulsion through the female reproductive tract.
Category reason: This is a question about the structural components of sperm and their location, which is a core topic in gross anatomy of the reproductive cell.

Question 17

Which of the following fetal vessels becomes the ligamentum teres in adults?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: After birth, the umbilical vein closes and fibroses due to cessation of placental blood flow. This remnant becomes the round ligament of the liver (ligamentum teres hepatis) within the falciform ligament. In contrast, the ductus venosus becomes the ligamentum venosum, the ductus arteriosus becomes the ligamentum arteriosum, and the umbilical arteries become the medial umbilical ligaments.
Category reason: This is a question about postnatal anatomical remnants of fetal circulation structures, which is primarily tested as Anatomy.

Question 18

Longest anteroposterior diameter of the pelvic inlet is seen in?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The anthropoid pelvic inlet is characteristically oval with a relatively long anteroposterior diameter compared with its transverse diameter. In contrast, the platypelloid pelvis is flattened with a short anteroposterior diameter and a wide transverse diameter, while the gynecoid is more rounded and the android is more heart-shaped. Therefore the pelvic type with the longest anteroposterior diameter at the inlet is the anthropoid pelvis.
Category reason: This tests recognition of pelvic inlet shapes and diameters by pelvic type, which is a foundational anatomy concept.

Question 19

Which cavity contains all of the frontal cavities? Choose only ONE best answer.?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The ventral body cavity is the anterior (frontal) cavity system and includes both the thoracic cavity and the abdominopelvic cavity. By contrast, the dorsal cavity is posterior and contains the cranial and vertebral (spinal) cavities. Since “all of the frontal cavities” refers collectively to thoracic plus abdominopelvic, the encompassing cavity is ventral.
Category reason: This question tests identification and organization of major body cavities (ventral vs dorsal), which is a core concept in human anatomy rather than a nursing intervention or clinical judgment scenario.

Question 20

The 3rd ventricle of brain is communicated with 4th ventricle by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The third and fourth ventricles are directly connected by the narrow channel in the midbrain called the cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of Sylvius), allowing cerebrospinal fluid to flow between them. The interventricular foramina (of Monro) connect each lateral ventricle to the third ventricle, not the third to the fourth. The central canal continues from the fourth ventricle into the spinal cord. Intervertebral foramina transmit spinal nerves and are unrelated to ventricular communication.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of ventricular anatomy and the named passages connecting brain ventricles, which is primarily an Anatomy topic.

Question 21

The carotid pulse is best palpated at which location?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The carotid artery is palpated in the groove between the trachea and the medial border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, typically around the level of the cricoid cartilage. This location provides the most direct access to the vessel without bony interference. Sites like over the clavicle correspond more to subclavian/brachial-related landmarks, and just below the ear/angle of mandible is closer to the carotid bifurcation where palpation may be less reliable and more uncomfortable.
Category reason: This question tests identification of a pulse palpation landmark based on surface anatomy of the neck, which is primarily an Anatomy concept rather than a nursing management/action judgment.

Question 22

The thickest layer in an artery is the?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Arteries have a prominent smooth muscle layer to withstand and regulate high-pressure blood flow, making the middle muscular layer the most developed. This layer is responsible for vasoconstriction and vasodilation, controlling vessel diameter and systemic blood pressure. The intima (including endothelium) is a thin inner lining, and the externa primarily provides connective tissue support and anchoring.
Category reason: This item tests identification of the structural layers of arteries and which layer is thickest, which is core gross anatomy of blood vessels rather than a nursing action or clinical decision.

Question 23

Which is the largest gland in the human body?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The liver is the largest gland in the human body and performs major exocrine (bile production) and endocrine/metabolic functions. It has a much greater mass than other glands such as the pancreas, thyroid, or adrenal glands. Its size and broad functional roles make it the correct choice among the options.
Category reason: This asks for identification of the largest gland, which is a basic structural fact about human organs, fitting Anatomy rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 24

A client recovering from wrist surgery is struggling with mobility. If the nurse instructs the client to perform wrist adduction, which of the following actions should the client take?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Wrist adduction refers to moving the hand toward the body’s midline in the frontal plane; with the forearm pronated (palm down), this motion is toward the thumb side. Moving toward the little finger describes abduction, not adduction. Bringing the back of the hand toward the wrist is extension, and moving the palm toward the inner forearm is flexion.
Category reason: This item tests the definition of a joint movement (wrist adduction) and how it corresponds to direction of motion, which is a foundational anatomy concept rather than a nursing judgment or safety/intervention decision.

Question 25

Which connective tissue connects muscle to bone?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The key anatomy principle is that tendons are dense regular connective tissue specialized to transmit the force of muscle contraction to bone, enabling movement at joints. This directly matches the stem asking what connects muscle to bone. Ligaments instead connect bone to bone to stabilize joints, making that a common distractor. Cartilage cushions and supports joints, and areolar tissue is loose connective tissue that fills spaces and supports organs rather than forming strong attachments.

Question 26

Number of thoracic vertebrae:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The human vertebral column is classically divided into 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 fused sacral, and 3–5 fused coccygeal vertebrae. The thoracic segment specifically contains 12 vertebrae, each typically articulating with ribs and contributing to the posterior thoracic cage. This standard count is used in anatomical landmarking and correlates with 12 pairs of ribs. Counts like 10 or 11 would not match normal human axial skeletal anatomy, while 13 represents an uncommon variation rather than the expected exam answer.

Question 27

Number of cervical vertebrae:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The human vertebral column is classically divided into fixed regional counts used for anatomical identification and clinical localization. The cervical region contains seven vertebrae (C1–C7), including the atlas (C1) and axis (C2), which are specialized for head support and rotation. This standard count is consistent across typical anatomy and is foundational for describing neurologic levels and spine imaging. Options listing 6, 8, or 9 would not match the normal cervical vertebral number and would imply an anatomic variant rather than the expected human structure.

Question 28

The longest bone in upper limb is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The key anatomical principle is that the proximal long bone of a limb segment is typically the largest and longest, forming the main lever arm and housing a substantial medullary cavity. The humerus spans from the shoulder (glenohumeral joint) to the elbow, making it longer than the forearm bones. The radius and ulna are long bones but are confined to the forearm segment and are shorter overall. The clavicle is a long bone of the shoulder girdle, but it is relatively short and S-shaped compared with the humerus.

Question 29

The kneecap bone is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The patella is a sesamoid bone embedded within the quadriceps tendon that lies anterior to the knee joint, commonly called the kneecap. Its primary function is to improve the mechanical advantage of the quadriceps for knee extension and to protect the anterior aspect of the joint. The tibia and fibula are the long bones of the lower leg, while the femur is the thigh bone, so they do not match the specific structure referred to as the kneecap. This is a straightforward identification of an anatomical structure by common name.

Question 30

Largest tarsal bone is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The calcaneus (heel bone) is the largest and strongest tarsal bone, designed to bear and transmit body weight during standing and gait. It forms the posterior prominence of the foot and provides the primary attachment for the Achilles tendon, reflecting its robust size and function. The talus is critical for ankle articulation but is smaller and primarily serves as a weight-transfer bone between leg and foot. Navicular and cuboid are midfoot tarsals and are distinctly smaller than the calcaneus.

Question 31

Number of lumbar vertebrae:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The typical adult human vertebral column is organized into standard regional counts: 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 fused sacral, and 3–5 fused coccygeal vertebrae. The lumbar region specifically comprises five separate (unfused) vertebrae labeled L1 through L5. Variations like lumbarization or sacralization can alter counts in some individuals, but exam questions asking the number of lumbar vertebrae generally refer to the normal anatomic standard. Options such as 4 or 6 represent uncommon variants rather than the expected baseline anatomy.

Question 32

Tracheostomy is usually performed between the tracheal rings of cartilage of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Standard surgical anatomy places the typical tracheostomy opening in the upper trachea, most commonly between the 2nd and 3rd tracheal rings, to provide a stable airway while avoiding key structures. This location helps reduce risk of injuring the cricoid cartilage superiorly and minimizes proximity to the innominate artery, which lies more inferiorly and can be catastrophic if eroded or injured. It also provides a well-supported segment of cartilaginous trachea for tube placement and long-term stoma formation. More inferior ring choices increase risk of vascular complications, while more superior approaches risk subglottic/tracheal stenosis from cartilage injury.

Question 33

The breast bone is called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The sternum is the flat midline bone of the anterior thoracic wall that forms the central portion of the rib cage. It articulates with the clavicles and the costal cartilages of the true ribs, providing protection for mediastinal organs such as the heart. The clavicle is the collarbone, the mandible is the lower jawbone, and the scapula is the shoulder blade on the posterior thorax. Therefore, the anatomical term for the breastbone is the sternum.

Question 34

The collar bone is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The key anatomical principle is that common bone names often have formal anatomical terms. The collar bone is the long, S-shaped bone that connects the manubrium of the sternum medially to the acromion of the scapula laterally, forming part of the shoulder girdle. This matches the clavicle specifically, whereas the scapula is the shoulder blade, the sternum is the breastbone, and the humerus is the upper arm bone. Knowing these relationships helps distinguish nearby skeletal structures in exams and clinical assessment.

Question 35

True ribs are?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: True ribs are defined as ribs that attach directly to the sternum via their own costal cartilages. In human anatomy, ribs 1 through 7 meet this criterion, making them the “true” ribs. Ribs 8–10 attach indirectly through the cartilage of rib 7 (false ribs), and ribs 11–12 do not attach anteriorly (floating ribs). Therefore, the count of true ribs is seven pairs.

Question 36

The light-sensitive layer of eye is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The retina contains photoreceptors (rods and cones) that convert incoming light into neural signals for vision. It lines the back of the eye and is the primary sensory layer responsible for detecting light intensity and color. The iris only regulates the amount of light entering by changing pupil size, and the lens focuses light onto the sensory layer. The cornea provides most of the eye’s refractive power but does not detect light.

Question 37

Total number of pairs of cranial nerves:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Human anatomy classically describes twelve pairs of cranial nerves (I–XII) emerging from the brain/brainstem to provide special sensory, somatic motor, and parasympathetic functions primarily to the head and neck. This standard numbering is universally used for neurologic examination and localization of lesions. Options listing fewer or more pairs do not match accepted anatomic classification and would conflict with routine clinical documentation (e.g., “CN II intact”). Therefore, twelve pairs is the single best answer.

Question 38

The facial nerve is cranial nerve number?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cranial nerves are numbered I–XII based on their order of emergence from the brain. The facial nerve is cranial nerve VII and is primarily responsible for muscles of facial expression, with additional roles in taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue and parasympathetic innervation to lacrimal and salivary glands. In contrast, cranial nerve V is the trigeminal nerve (major facial sensation and mastication), cranial nerve VI controls lateral rectus (abduction), and cranial nerve VIII is vestibulocochlear (hearing and balance). Therefore, the facial nerve corresponds to VII.

Question 39

The vagus nerve is cranial nerve number?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cranial nerves are numbered I–XII based on their order of emergence from the brain, and each number corresponds to a specific named nerve. The vagus nerve is the tenth cranial nerve and provides extensive parasympathetic innervation to thoracic and abdominal organs as well as motor/sensory functions in the pharynx and larynx. This numbering distinguishes it from IX (glossopharyngeal), XI (spinal accessory), and XII (hypoglossal), which have different primary targets and functions. Therefore, the correct cranial nerve number for the vagus is 10.

Question 40

The hip bone is also called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The core anatomical principle is that the “hip bone” refers to the single, paired pelvic bone formed by fusion of three components. The os coxae is the complete hip bone, comprising the ilium, ischium, and pubis. The other options name only individual parts of the hip bone rather than the entire structure. Therefore, the term that correctly matches “hip bone” as a whole is the os coxae.

Question 41

The jaw bone is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The core anatomical principle is that the lower jaw is formed by a single movable bone that articulates with the temporal bone at the temporomandibular joint. The mandible is the lower jaw and is the only skull bone that moves during chewing and speaking. The maxilla forms the upper jaw and hard palate, while the zygomatic forms the cheek prominence and part of the orbit. The temporal bone is part of the lateral skull and houses structures of the ear rather than constituting the jaw itself.

Question 42

The cheek bone is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The zygomatic bone forms the prominence of the cheek and contributes to the lateral wall and floor of the orbit. It articulates with the maxilla, temporal, frontal, and sphenoid bones, creating key facial contours. The maxilla mainly forms the upper jaw and anterior face rather than the primary cheek prominence. The mandible is the lower jaw, and the temporal bone is primarily part of the skull base and lateral cranium.

Question 43

The spinal cord ends at vertebral level:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In adults, the spinal cord typically terminates as the conus medullaris around the L1 vertebral level, with common variation spanning L1–L2. Below this point, the vertebral canal contains the cauda equina nerve roots rather than solid cord tissue. This anatomic fact is clinically important for procedures like lumbar puncture, which are performed below the cord termination (usually L3–L4 or L4–L5) to reduce risk of cord injury. Options placing termination lower (e.g., L3–L4 or L5) incorrectly confuse the end of the spinal cord with the lower extent of the cauda equina within the lumbar canal.

Question 44

Which bone protects the brain?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The brain is enclosed within the cranial cavity formed by the cranial bones, which provide rigid protection against external trauma. This bony vault surrounds the brain and supports meninges and vascular structures. Vertebrae protect the spinal cord rather than the brain. The sternum protects thoracic organs, and the mandible forms the lower jaw and does not encase the brain.

Question 45

The wrist bones are called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The anatomical principle is that bones are named by region and function within the limb. The wrist is formed by eight small bones arranged in two rows that collectively are termed the carpal bones. In contrast, tarsals belong to the ankle/foot, metacarpals form the palm, and phalanges are the finger bones. Therefore the term that correctly identifies the wrist bones is the carpal bones.

Question 46

The ankle bones are called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Anatomically, the ankle and proximal foot are formed by the tarsal bones, which include the talus and calcaneus along with the other tarsals. These bones articulate to create the ankle joint and support weight transmission from the tibia/fibula to the foot. Carpals are the wrist bones, not the ankle. Metatarsals and phalanges are more distal bones of the foot (forefoot and toes) rather than the ankle region.

Question 47

The “funny bone” refers to:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The “funny bone” sensation is caused by transient compression/irritation of the ulnar nerve as it passes superficially behind the medial epicondyle at the elbow. Striking this area produces paresthesia radiating down the ulnar distribution (ring and little fingers). This is a nerve-related phenomenon rather than pain from a bone itself. The radius, humerus, and scapula are bones and do not explain the characteristic tingling shock-like sensation.

Question 48

The back of skull bone is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The occipital bone forms the posterior aspect (back) and base of the cranium, including the region around the foramen magnum. This location corresponds to the “back of the skull” in standard anatomical terminology. The temporal bones are lateral and inferior (sides near the ears), the parietal bones form the superior-lateral roof, and the sphenoid is a central skull-base bone. Therefore the posterior skull bone is best identified as the occipital bone.

Question 49

The forehead bone is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The frontal bone forms the anterior part of the cranium and makes up the forehead as well as the roofs of the orbits. This is a basic skull anatomy identification question where the named bone is matched to its surface landmark. The parietal bones form the superior-lateral skull, the occipital bone forms the posterior skull and base, and the temporal bones form the lateral skull around the ear region. Therefore, the bone corresponding to the forehead is the frontal bone.

Question 50

Average weight of adult liver is —?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The key principle is standard adult organ anatomy: the liver is the largest solid organ and typically weighs about 1.4–1.6 kg in an average adult. This value reflects normal anatomical range and is commonly cited in basic anatomy references. 1200 g is more consistent with a smaller-than-average adult or lower-end estimates, whereas 2000 g is generally above normal and may suggest hepatomegaly. Therefore the best single average value among the options is 1500 g.

Train with a large NCLEX question bank and jump into a full exam-style simulator

Anatomy NCLEX Practice Test

Continue Learning