Question 1

Which organ in the human body is affected by malaria?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Malaria parasites first infect and replicate within hepatocytes in the liver before entering the bloodstream and invading red blood cells. This hepatic stage is essential for the parasite’s life cycle and disease progression.

Question 2

Which of the following is NOT a type of appendicitis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Acute appendicitis has multiple pathological variants such as simple, suppurative (purulent), gangrenous, perforated, and complications like appendiceal abscess. Chronic appendicitis is not a recognized pathological type; it is not supported as a true diagnostic entity in standard surgical pathology.

Question 3

First stage of pneumonia is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The earliest stage of lobar pneumonia is congestion, characterized by vascular engorgement, intra-alveolar fluid, and numerous bacteria. This phase precedes red and gray hepatization and occurs before the immune response fully develops.

Question 4

A blood disorder in which RBC's, WBC's and platelets are declined in the blood is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Aplastic anemia involves failure of the bone marrow, leading to a pathological reduction of all blood cell lines (pancytopenia). The marrow becomes hypocellular with fatty replacement, causing decreased RBCs, WBCs, and platelets.

Question 5

Which of the following is NOT a clinical feature of an infant with failure to thrive?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Failure to thrive typically presents with poor weight gain, appearing small for their age, diminished social responsiveness, and an apathetic or expressionless affect. Short stature is not an inevitable clinical feature; height is usually preserved early and may normalize with catch-up growth, so this statement is not a characteristic feature.

Question 6

In which condition are Charcot-Leyden crystals found?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Charcot–Leyden crystals are eosinophil-derived crystals commonly seen in the sputum of patients with bronchial asthma due to eosinophilic inflammation.

Question 7

Congenital absence of ganglion cells in the submucosal and myenteric plexuses of the distal intestine is known as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hirschsprung disease is defined by congenital aganglionosis of the distal intestine (absence of the Meissner and Auerbach plexuses), causing functional obstruction.

Question 8

What does the term cancer mean?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cancer is characterized by uncontrolled cell growth; 'out of control' best reflects the pathological meaning. 'cell division' is normal and not necessarily malignant; 'crab' reflects etymology, and 'lobster' is incorrect.

Question 9

What is the average length of time from HIV infection to the development of AIDS?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Without antiretroviral therapy, the median time from HIV infection to AIDS is typically around a decade; many sources cite an average of about ten years.

Question 10

What is the first process in wound healing?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The earliest event after injury is the inflammatory phase, with neutrophils migrating to the wound edge to remove debris and bacteria. Granulation tissue and collagen formation occur later; 'first intention' is a closure type, not the initial process.

Question 11

What disease causes yellowing of the eyes, skin, and urine?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Yellowing of the sclera and skin with dark urine is a hallmark of jaundice due to elevated bilirubin.

Question 12

Which group of people primarily suffers from silicosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Silicosis is an occupational pneumoconiosis caused by the inhalation of crystalline silica dust and is common among workers in mining, quarrying, sandblasting, and stone-cutting settings.

Question 13

In which type of schizophrenia are features like increased psychomotor activity and waxy flexibility classically seen?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Waxy flexibility and marked psychomotor disturbances are hallmark features of catatonia, the catatonic subtype of schizophrenia.

Question 14

What is the most common cause of jaundice in a newborn within the first 24 hours of life?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Jaundice appearing in the first 24 hours is pathologic and is most commonly due to hemolysis; among causes, ABO incompatibility is the most frequent, whereas Rh disease (erythroblastosis fetalis) is less common because of prophylaxis.

Question 15

The organ of the digestive system most commonly involved in cystic fibrosis is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cystic fibrosis causes thick secretions that obstruct pancreatic ducts, leading to exocrine pancreatic insufficiency; the pancreas is the digestive organ most commonly affected.

Question 16

Which condition most commonly causes dry gangrene?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dry gangrene results from ischemia due to loss of arterial blood supply. Venous thrombosis and bacterial infection are associated with wet gangrene; diabetes predisposes via arterial disease, but is not the direct cause.

Question 17

The Burtonian line is seen in poisoning by which substance?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The Burtonian (blue-black) line along the gingival margin is classic for chronic lead poisoning due to the deposition of lead sulfide.

Question 18

Which of the following disease manifestations is not associated with low temperature?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Prickles (prickly heat/miliaria) occur with heat and humidity, not low temperatures. Chilblains, frostbite, and trench foot are cold-related injuries.

Question 19

Edema may result from?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Edema occurs when drainage of interstitial fluid is impaired; lymphatic obstruction leads to fluid accumulation. Hypertension alone, excess beer intake, and diabetes insipidus do not typically cause peripheral edema—DI causes water loss and dehydration.

Question 20

A client has a diagnosis of discoid lupus erythematosus (DLE). The nurse recognizes that discoid lupus differs from systemic lupus erythematosus in that it?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Discoid lupus erythematosus is limited to cutaneous involvement, unlike systemic lupus, which affects internal organs such as the kidneys, heart, lungs, joints, and muscles.

Question 21

Which blood group is most commonly associated with gastric cancer?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Blood group A is classically associated with an increased risk of gastric carcinoma, whereas group O is linked to peptic ulcer disease.

Question 22

Which of the following is NOT a complication of measles?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: An atrial septal defect is a congenital heart defect and is not related to measles. Measles can cause complications such as conjunctivitis, laryngitis, and encephalitis.

Question 23

What kind of disease is multiple sclerosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune demyelinating disorder of the central nervous system.

Question 24

In COVID-19 disease, the predominant gastrointestinal symptoms are?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Among the reported gastrointestinal manifestations of COVID-19, diarrhea is the most common symptom.

Question 25

Congenital diseases are?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Congenital diseases are conditions present at birth; they may be genetic or due to environmental or teratogenic factors and are not necessarily fatal. Thus, all statements a–c are false.

Question 26

Which of the following systemic diseases is related to periodontal disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Periodontal disease is linked, via systemic inflammation and bacteremia, to cardiovascular disease, adverse pregnancy outcomes like preterm low birth weight, and respiratory infections; therefore, all listed conditions are related.

Question 27

Which of the following clinical manifestations is NOT part of frailty syndrome in the elderly?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Features of the frailty phenotype include weakness (low grip strength), slowness, low physical activity or poor endurance, and unintentional weight loss. Loss of appetite is not a core criterion; the weight-loss criterion focuses on actual involuntary weight loss rather than appetite.

Question 28

Which part of the human body is damaged by malaria?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Malaria leads to sequestration and destruction of erythrocytes, with marked reticuloendothelial hyperplasia causing splenomegaly and splenic damage; the spleen is the organ commonly affected.

Question 29

Which is not a type of embolus?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Recognized emboli include air, amniotic fluid, fat, and septic (bacterial) emboli. Viruses do not form emboli in the circulation.

Question 30

The first manifestation of inflammation is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The earliest visible sign of acute inflammation is vasodilation, causing hyperemia, which appears as redness (rubor). Swelling, heat, and pain typically follow.

Question 31

Who described the four A's of schizophrenia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Eugen Bleuler coined the term schizophrenia and described the 4 A’s: affective blunting, autism, ambivalence, and associative loosening.

Question 32

What are the mild symptoms of the novel coronavirus?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Fever, cough, and shortness of breath are recognized mild symptoms of COVID-19, so all listed options are correct.

Question 33

What does the term ischaemia refer to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ischemia is a condition where blood flow (and thus oxygen) is restricted to a part of the body, typically due to blocked arteries. It can affect any tissue, not only specific organs like the heart or kidneys.

Question 34

Inflammation of the parotid gland causes ______?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Mumps is acute viral parotitis—an inflammation of the parotid salivary glands. Tonsillitis affects tonsils, pertussis is a respiratory infection, and 'None' is incorrect.

Question 35

Which is the definitive diagnosis for Reye's syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Reye syndrome is confirmed by liver biopsy showing microvesicular fatty changes; brain biopsy, MRI, or CSF analysis are not definitive.

Question 36

Carbohydrate antigen 125 is a marker of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: CA-125 (Carbohydrate Antigen 125) is a tumor marker commonly associated with epithelial ovarian cancer; it is not specific for brain, colon, or breast cancers.

Question 37

What are the stages of rigor?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Rigor (chills with fever) classically progresses through three stages: cold/chill stage, hot/flush stage, and sweating/defervescence stage.

Question 38

Duodenal ulcer is found mostly in individuals of which blood group?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Duodenal ulcers show a higher prevalence in individuals with blood group O compared with other ABO groups.

Question 39

In a case of ovarian dysgerminoma, one of the following tumor markers is likely to be raised?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dysgerminoma commonly elevates LDH (and PLAP). AFP is typical of yolk sac tumors, hCG of choriocarcinoma/syncytiotrophoblastic elements, and inhibin of granulosa cell tumors.

Question 40

All of the following features are seen in viral pneumonia except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Viral pneumonia primarily causes interstitial inflammation with bronchiolitis, and multinucleated giant cells can be seen (e.g., RSV). Predominant alveolar exudates are characteristic of bacterial pneumonia, not viral.

Question 41

Which of the following is the least dangerous in lupus?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In SLE, nephritis and cardiac involvement carry higher morbidity and mortality (renal failure, pericarditis/myocarditis). Pleuritis is typically less severe and more manageable, making lung involvement the least dangerous of the options.

Question 42

A tumor of hyaline cartilage is called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Enchondroma is a benign tumor composed of hyaline cartilage within the medullary cavity of bone; the other options refer to different bone tumors.

Question 43

Which of the following is NOT a feature of HELLP syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: HELLP stands for Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, and Low Platelets (thrombocytopenia). Eosinophilia is not a component of HELLP.

Question 44

Crigler-Najjar syndrome is a congenital deficiency of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Crigler–Najjar syndrome is due to congenital absence or severe deficiency of hepatic UDP-glucuronyl transferase, leading to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia.

Question 45

Which statement regarding physiological jaundice of the newborn is true, except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Physiologic jaundice typically appears after 24 hours, peaks on days 3–4, and resolves by about day 7 in term infants. Jaundice appearing within 24 hours is pathologic, making this the exception.

Question 46

All are features indicative of physiological jaundice of a newborn except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Physiologic jaundice starts after 24 hours of life, peaks around day 3, and resolves by about day 7. Jaundice before 24 hours is pathologic, so option B is the exception.

Question 47

Pathological jaundice criteria: all are included except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pathologic neonatal jaundice includes jaundice within the first 24 hours, persistence beyond ~2 weeks, clay-colored stools, and conjugated bilirubin >2 mg/dL. Therefore, 'appear after 24 hours' is not a criterion for pathologic jaundice.

Question 48

A mother's blood group is O negative and the baby's is A positive. On day 3, the baby developed neonatal icterus. What is the most likely possible cause?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Physiologic jaundice appears after 24 hours and peaks on days 3–5. Hemolytic disease from Rh/ABO incompatibility typically causes jaundice within the first 24 hours, and biliary atresia presents weeks later. Sepsis is less likely as the primary cause at day 3.

Question 49

A salty taste felt while kissing the child occurs?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Parents often notice a salty taste on the child's skin due to elevated sweat chloride and sodium in cystic fibrosis.

Question 50

Erythroblastosis fetalis can develop kernicterus, which may occur as a complication of neonatal jaundice; which organ can be damaged?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Kernicterus is bilirubin encephalopathy; unconjugated bilirubin deposits in the basal ganglia and other brain regions, leading to brain damage.

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