Triage Practice Test 8
Triage NCLEX Practice Test
Triage is a key topic within the NCLEX test plan, located under Safe and Effective Care Environment → Management of Care → Establishing Priorities → Triage. This section applies acuity-based decision-making to allocate limited resources ethically during emergencies or heavy workloads. Each test contains 50 questions designed to mirror the difficulty and variety of the real exam.
This is the 8th part of the Triage series. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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Triage Practice Test 8
The intensive care unit (ICU) nurse receives a phone call stating a client diagnosed with a head trauma must undergo admission. There are no empty beds. Which client is most stable and eligible for a transfer to the step-down neurological unit?
- A client diagnosed with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and who has a Glasgow Coma Scale of 8.
- A client diagnosed with a cervical spinal injury 3 days ago with halo traction.
- A client diagnosed with a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) and subdural hematoma 1 day ago.
- A client diagnosed with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and a tracheostomy.
Explanation: Answer reason: Triage and bed management prioritize keeping ICU-level care for clients at highest risk of rapid neurologic or airway deterioration. A client 3 days post–cervical spinal injury in halo traction is typically hemodynamically and neurologically more stable once acute swelling and immediate post-injury instability have passed, and ongoing care is focused on immobilization and monitoring that can be managed in a neuro step-down setting. In contrast, increased ICP with a GCS of 8 signals severe brain injury with high risk for herniation and need for intensive neurologic monitoring/airway support. A CVA with a subdural hematoma just 1 day ago is also early and unstable, with significant risk for expanding bleed and worsening mental status requiring ICU resources.
Several patients are taking antipsychotic medications and are having medication side effects. Place the following patients in priority order for additional assessment and appropriate interventions, with 1 being the most critical and 4 being the least?
- A patient who is taking trifluoperazine and has a temperature of 103.6°F (39.8°C) with tachycardia, muscular rigidity, and dysphagia
- A patient who is taking fluphenazine and has dry mouth and dry eyes, urinary hesitancy, constipation, and photosensitivity
- A patient who is taking loxapine and has a protruding tongue with lip smacking and spastic facial distortions
- A patient who is taking clozapine and reports a sore throat, fever, malaise, and flulike symptoms that began about 6 weeks ago after starting the new antipsychotic medication; white blood cell count is 2000/mm3 (2.0 × 109/L)
Explanation: Answer reason: A patient who is taking trifluoperazine and has a temperature of 103.6°F (39.8°C) with tachycardia, muscular rigidity, and dysphagia These findings are classic for neuroleptic malignant syndrome, a life-threatening antipsychotic reaction requiring immediate emergency assessment, medication discontinuation, and rapid supportive care (airway/ventilation, cooling, IV fluids) to prevent rhabdomyolysis, renal failure, and cardiovascular collapse. The combination of high fever, severe “lead-pipe” rigidity, autonomic instability (tachycardia), and dysphagia signals imminent airway and systemic risk. By comparison, clozapine-associated agranulocytosis is also dangerous but typically allows rapid protective isolation and urgent provider notification rather than the same immediate physiologic instability. Anticholinergic effects and tardive dyskinesia are important but are generally less immediately life-threatening than NMS.
The nurse in the pediatric clinic is triaging telephone messages. The nurse should call the parent of which child first?
- 2-year-old with bilateral tympanostomy tubes who has a small piece of plastic in the right outer ear
- 4-year-old post adenotonsillectomy who is now reporting ear pain
- 5-year-old strep throat who needs a note to return to school 24 hours after starting antibiotics
- 7-year-old 5 days post tonsillectomy who wants to return to soccer practice today
Explanation: Answer reason: Ear pain after adenotonsillectomy can reflect referred throat pain but also can accompany edema, infection, or evolving bleeding risk, so the nurse should screen for airway symptoms, hydration status, and any signs of hemorrhage. A foreign body in the outer ear without respiratory distress is typically nonurgent and can usually wait for a scheduled evaluation. The request for a school note after 24 hours of antibiotics and the question about returning to sports at day 5 are administrative/activity guidance issues and are lower priority than a potential post-op complication.
The nurse has received report on 4 clients. Which client should the nurse see first?
- Client admitted this morning with acute pyelonephritis whose IV line is infiltrated
- Client scheduled for surgery in 2 hours who has questions about the procedure
- Client who had a colostomy yesterday and now has a leaking colostomy bag
- Client with a total hip replacement 3 days ago who reports no bowel movement in 2 days
Explanation: Answer reason: Acute pyelonephritis often requires prompt parenteral therapy, and loss of a functioning line can quickly delay treatment. The other situations are important but are not immediately threatening: a leaking ostomy appliance is a comfort/skin-integrity issue, questions before surgery can be addressed after immediate physiologic needs are stabilized, and no bowel movement for 2 days post-op is common constipation without signs of obstruction. Restoring reliable IV access and assessing the infiltration site should be prioritized first.
A nurse on a cardiovascular unit has received a morning report stating that all clients were stable overnight with stable vital signs. Which client does the nurse assess first?
- The client who is scheduled for coronary artery bypass graft within one hour
- The client who has hemodialysis in one hour and has scheduled metoprolol due
- The client who had three coronary artery stents placed in the cath lab 24 hours ago
- The client who was admitted for non-ST elevation myocardial infarction eight hours ago
Explanation: Answer reason: At 8 hours after admission, this client is still in a high-risk window for recurrent chest pain, evolving ECG changes, and complications from anticoagulants/antiplatelets, so early reassessment is the safest triage choice. Pre-op CABG within an hour is important but typically follows a structured preoperative checklist and monitoring while awaiting transport, and sudden deterioration is less likely than with an active MI. A client 24 hours post-stent is farther from the highest-risk immediate post-procedure period, and dialysis/holding a beta-blocker can be addressed after the highest-acuity cardiac assessment.
The nurse is receiving handoff of care report on 4 clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
- Client with chronic hypercalcemia who underwent a parathyroidectomy 1 hour ago and has a sore throat and incisional pain
- Client with Cushing syndrome who is scheduled for an adrenalectomy and has bruises and petechiae on the skin
- Client with hyperthyroidism who underwent a thyroidectomy 2 hours ago and is shivering and reporting chills
- Client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has a foot ulcer and is reporting feeling flushed and thirsty
Explanation: Answer reason: New shivering and chills shortly after thyroid surgery can signal acute hypermetabolic decompensation and/or early systemic infection, both of which can quickly destabilize vital signs and oxygenation. This client needs immediate assessment of temperature, heart rate, blood pressure, mental status, and airway/neck for swelling or bleeding to determine if emergency interventions are needed. In contrast, expected incisional pain and mild sore throat 1 hour after parathyroidectomy are common postoperative findings without immediate red-flag features.
The nurse has been made aware that the following 4 clients require assistance. The nurse should first assist the client who had?
- An abdominal hysterectomy 5 hours ago and is reporting severe incisional pain
- A transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) yesterday and whose catheter has become disconnected
- A lumbar laminectomy 2 days ago and is complaining that the feet are still numb
- A spinal cord injury at T2 two weeks ago and is currently diaphoretic and nauseated
Explanation: Answer reason: This condition can rapidly progress to severe hypertension, stroke, seizures, or dysrhythmias unless the trigger is removed and blood pressure is treated promptly. The other situations are important but more stable: postoperative pain after hysterectomy is expected, numb feet 2 days post-laminectomy is concerning but typically not as immediately life-threatening, and a disconnected TURP catheter requires correction to maintain irrigation/drainage but is less urgent than a potential autonomic crisis. Therefore, this client must be assessed and managed first with immediate vital signs/BP evaluation and rapid intervention.
The nurse in the emergency department (ED) is assessing a client with multiple injuries that occurred as a result of a motor vehicle collision. Which of the following nursing observations should receive highest priority?
- Avulsion injury of the left index finger
- Deep laceration on the right forearm with blood oozing from the surface
- Hematoma on left side of the neck
- Open fracture of right tibia and fibula
Explanation: Answer reason: A neck hematoma can rapidly expand and compress the airway or indicate major vascular injury (eg, carotid or jugular), making sudden deterioration possible. The other findings represent significant extremity injuries or superficial bleeding but are less likely to cause abrupt airway obstruction in the first moments of assessment. Therefore this observation requires the most urgent evaluation and airway preparedness.
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