Physiology Practice Test 25
Physiology NCLEX Practice Test
Physiology is a key topic within the NCLEX test plan, located under Nursing Science → Clinical Foundations → Physiology. This section explores body functions to strengthen nursing understanding of assessment and intervention planning. Each test contains 50 questions designed to mirror the difficulty and variety of the real exam.
This is the 25th part of the Physiology series. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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Physiology Practice Test 25
Which enzyme is deficient in lactose intolerance?
- Maltase
- Lactase
- Sucrase
- Amylase
Explanation: Answer reason: The missing enzyme is the one that hydrolyzes lactose into glucose and galactose, so deficiency causes osmotic diarrhea, bloating, and gas from colonic bacterial fermentation. Maltase and sucrase act on different disaccharides (maltose and sucrose), so their deficiencies would produce intolerance to those sugars instead. Amylase digests starch (polysaccharides) and is not the key enzyme for lactose breakdown at the intestinal brush border.
If a patient with Type 1 diabetes becomes ill or blood glucose levels rise and there is an anion gap, which acid-base balance is present?
- Metabolic acidosis
- Metabolic alkalosis
- Respiratory acidosis
- Respiratory alkalosis
Explanation: Answer reason: In type 1 diabetes during illness or insulin deficiency, increased lipolysis produces ketone bodies (acetoacetate and beta-hydroxybutyrate), consuming bicarbonate and lowering pH, which is a high–anion gap metabolic acidosis (DKA). The expected physiologic compensation is hyperventilation (Kussmaul respirations) that lowers PaCO2, distinguishing it from a primary respiratory disorder. Metabolic alkalosis would be associated with elevated bicarbonate (e.g., vomiting/diuretics) rather than an increased anion gap from acid accumulation.
A client with a 3-day history of nausea and vomiting presents to the emergency department. The client is hypoventilating and has a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min. The electrocardiogram (ECG) monitor displays tachycardia, with a heart rate of 120 beats/min. Arterial blood gases are drawn and the nurse reviews the results, expecting to note which of the following?
- A decreased pH and an increased CO2
- An increased pH and a decreased CO2
- A decreased pH and a decreased HCO3−
- An increased pH with an increased HCO3−
Explanation: Answer reason: The expected ABG pattern is an elevated pH with elevated bicarbonate due to the net loss of hydrogen ions and relative increase in base. Hypoventilation is a compensatory response meant to retain CO2 (increase PaCO2) to partially offset the alkalemia, so options describing low bicarbonate or acidemia do not fit the dominant disturbance. A common distractor is respiratory acidosis from hypoventilation alone, but the history of prolonged vomiting points most strongly to metabolic alkalosis as the primary process.
The nursing instructor asks the student to describe fetal circulation, specifically the ductus venosus. Which statement by the student indicates an understanding of the ductus venosus?
- It connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta.
- It is an opening between the right and left atria.
- It connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava.
- It connects the umbilical artery to the inferior vena cava.
Explanation: Answer reason: The core principle is that fetal shunts route oxygenated placental blood to the systemic circulation while bypassing organs not yet fully functioning. The ductus venosus shunts oxygen-rich blood from the umbilical vein past most hepatic circulation directly into the inferior vena cava for rapid delivery to the heart. The pulmonary-artery-to-aorta connection describes the ductus arteriosus, and the interatrial opening describes the foramen ovale. Umbilical arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta, so linking an umbilical artery to the IVC is anatomically and physiologically incorrect.
A positive Chvostek’s sign is most likely associated with which electrolyte imbalance?
- Hypokalemia
- Hypocalcemia
- Hypercalcemia
- Hyperkalemia
Explanation: Answer reason: Tapping the facial nerve triggers ipsilateral facial muscle twitching when calcium is deficient, making this a classic physical finding of acute or significant calcium depletion (e.g., hypoparathyroidism, post-thyroidectomy, pancreatitis). Potassium disturbances primarily change cardiac conduction and skeletal muscle strength rather than causing this specific facial nerve hyperexcitability sign. Hypercalcemia tends to reduce neuromuscular excitability, producing weakness and diminished reflexes, the opposite physiology.
Which of the following is not the function of the liver?
- Glycogen storage
- Production of digestive enzymes
- Synthesis of bile
- Detoxification of toxins
Explanation: Answer reason: Digestive enzymes (e.g., amylase, lipase, proteases) are primarily produced by the pancreas and small-intestinal brush border, not by hepatocytes. Bile supports fat digestion by emulsification but is not an enzyme. Therefore the choice describing enzyme production does not match liver function.
Ricky’s grandmother has been suffering from persistent vomiting for two days now. She appears to be lethargic and weak and has myalgia. She is noted to have dry mucus membranes and her capillary refill takes >4 seconds. She is diagnosed as having gastroenteritis and dehydration. Measurement of arterial blood gas shows pH 7.5, PaO2 85 mm Hg, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, and HCO3 34 mmol/L. What acid-base disorder is shown?
- Respiratory Alkalosis, Uncompensated
- Respiratory Acidosis, Partially Compensated
- Metabolic Alkalosis, Uncompensated
- Metabolic Alkalosis, Partially Compensated
Explanation: Answer reason: The primary process is metabolic since bicarbonate is elevated (HCO3 34 mmol/L), which is classic after prolonged vomiting due to loss of gastric hydrogen ions and volume depletion. Appropriate respiratory compensation for metabolic alkalosis would be hypoventilation with an elevated PaCO2, but the PaCO2 is normal at 40 mm Hg, indicating no meaningful compensation. Therefore, this is an uncompensated metabolic alkalosis rather than a respiratory disorder or a partially compensated state.
Anne, who is drinking beer at a party, falls and hits her head on the ground. Her friend Liza dials “911” because Anne is unconscious, depressed ventilation (shallow and slow respirations), rapid heart rate, and is profusely bleeding from both ears. Which primary acid-base imbalance is Anne at risk for if medical attention is not provided?
- Metabolic Acidosis
- Metabolic Alkalosis
- Respiratory Acidosis
- Respiratory Alkalosis
Explanation: Answer reason: The stem explicitly describes depressed ventilation (shallow, slow respirations), consistent with impaired CO2 elimination from CNS depression (alcohol) and possible traumatic brain injury. In contrast, respiratory alkalosis would require hyperventilation, and metabolic alkalosis typically relates to loss of gastric acid or excess bicarbonate rather than breathing pattern. While shock/poor perfusion from bleeding can contribute to metabolic (lactic) acidosis, the most direct primary disturbance from the provided findings is CO2 retention from hypoventilation.
What is the main digestive function of the stomach?
- Carbohydrate digestion
- Protein digestion
- Fat absorption
- Vitamin synthesis
Explanation: Answer reason: Mechanical mixing (churning) helps form chyme, but the key macronutrient chemically digested in the stomach is protein. Carbohydrate digestion primarily begins in the mouth with salivary amylase and continues mainly in the small intestine. Most fat digestion and essentially all clinically meaningful nutrient absorption occur in the small intestine rather than the stomach.
A 6-year-old child is brought to the pediatric clinic by their parents because of persistent nighttime bedwetting since toilet training. The child has never been consistently dry at night. There is no history of daytime urinary incontinence, dysuria, fever, or foul-smelling urine. The child is developing appropriately for age, performs well in school, and has no recent psychosocial stressors at home. Physical examination and urinalysis are normal. What is most likely the underlying physiology of this child’s condition?
- Psychogenic stress
- Delayed bladder maturation
- Urinary tract infection
- Vesicoureteral reflux
Explanation: Answer reason: The stem supports this by showing lifelong nighttime wetting since toilet training with normal daytime continence, normal exam, and normal urinalysis. Infectious or anatomic causes usually present with dysuria, fever, foul-smelling urine, daytime symptoms, or abnormal urinalysis, which are absent here. Psychosocial stress is more associated with secondary enuresis (new onset after a sustained dry period), which is not the case in this child. Therefore the most likely physiology is delayed maturation of the bladder-control mechanisms.
A client presents with a history of vomiting and diarrhea. The arterial blood gas levels show; PaCO2- 33 mEq/L, PaO2- 89mmHg, HCO2-3- 18 mEq/L, pH 7.32. What is the likely acid-base imbalance?
- Metabolic acidosis
- Metabolic alkalosis
- Respiratory acidosis
- Respiratory alkalosis
Explanation: Answer reason: The pH is low (7.32), indicating acidemia, and the bicarbonate is low (HCO3− 18 mEq/L), which directly causes acidemia and supports a primary metabolic process. The PaCO2 is also low (33 mmHg), consistent with respiratory compensation via hyperventilation to blow off CO2. Diarrhea commonly causes loss of bicarbonate from the GI tract, producing metabolic acidosis; vomiting more often drives metabolic alkalosis, but the ABG values here match a metabolic acidosis with compensation.
Dave, a 6-year-old boy, was rushed to the hospital following her mother’s complaint that her son has been vomiting, nauseated and has overall weakness. After a series of tests, the nurse notes the laboratory results: potassium: 2.9 mEq. Which primary acid-base imbalance is this boy at risk for if medical intervention is not carried out?
- Respiratory Acidosis
- Respiratory Alkalosis
- Metabolic Acidosis
- Metabolic Alkalosis
Explanation: Answer reason: The hypokalemia (K+ 2.9 mEq/L) is consistent with this process because volume depletion and aldosterone activation increase renal potassium and hydrogen ion losses, sustaining the alkalemic state. Without intervention, worsening chloride and volume depletion impair renal bicarbonate excretion and can make the alkalosis refractory. A common distractor is metabolic acidosis, which is more typical of diarrhea (bicarbonate loss) rather than vomiting.
Baby Angela was rushed to the Emergency Room following her mother’s complaint that the infant has been irritable, difficult to breastfeed, and has had diarrhea for the past 3 days. The infant’s respiratory rate is elevated and the fontanels are sunken. The Emergency Room physician orders ABGs after assessing the ABCs. The results from the ABG results show pH 7.39, PaCO2 27 mmHg, and HCO3 19 mEq/L. What does this mean?
- Respiratory Alkalosis, Fully Compensated
- Metabolic Acidosis, Uncompensated
- Metabolic Acidosis, Fully Compensated
- Respiratory Acidosis, Uncompensated
Explanation: Answer reason: A primary metabolic acidosis is indicated by the low bicarbonate (HCO3 19 mEq/L), consistent with bicarbonate loss from diarrhea. The PaCO2 is also low (27 mmHg), showing respiratory compensation via hyperventilation to “blow off” CO2 and raise pH. Because the pH (7.39) is within the normal range but trends toward the acidic side, this represents a fully compensated disorder. An uncompensated metabolic acidosis would have a low pH, and respiratory alkalosis would require an elevated/normal HCO3 rather than a decreased one.
Three-year-old Adrian is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of asthma and respiratory distress syndrome. The mother of the child reports to the nurse on duty that she has witnessed slight tremors and behavioral changes in her child over the past four days. The attending physician orders routine ABGs following an assessment of the ABCs. The ABG results are pH 7.35, PaCO2 72 mmHg, and HCO3 38 mEq/L. What acid-base disorder is shown?
- Respiratory Acidosis, Uncompensated
- Respiratory Acidosis, Fully Compensated
- Respiratory Alkalosis, Fully Compensated
- Metabolic Alkalosis, Partially Compensated
Explanation: Answer reason: A primary respiratory acidosis is indicated by markedly elevated PaCO2 (72 mmHg) from hypoventilation/CO2 retention, which lowers pH. The pH is at the low end of normal (7.35), indicating compensation has brought it back into the normal range rather than remaining acidemic. The elevated HCO3 (38 mEq/L) reflects renal retention of bicarbonate as the compensatory metabolic response to chronic hypercapnia. This rules out uncompensated respiratory acidosis (which would have low pH with minimal HCO3 rise) and rules out respiratory alkalosis or metabolic alkalosis because PaCO2 is clearly high and driving the primary disturbance.
The 5-minute Apgar of a baby delivered by C-section is recorded as 9. The most likely reason for this is?
- The mottled appearance of the trunk
- The presence of conjunctival hemorrhages
- Cyanosis of the hands and feet
- Respiratory rate of 20–28 per minute
Explanation: Answer reason: A total score of 9 most commonly indicates that only the color component is not fully normal, while the other four components are normal. Peripheral (acrocyanosis) limited to hands and feet is common in the first minutes after birth and reduces the color score by 1 point, fitting a 9/10 overall. By contrast, a respiratory rate in the 20–28/min range would suggest depressed respiratory effort and would typically lower the score by more than one point. Conjunctival hemorrhages and trunk mottling are not Apgar scoring criteria and would not typically explain a specific Apgar point deduction.
Which of the following statements provides the rationale for using a hypotonic solution for a patient with FVD?
- A hypotonic solution provides free water to help the kidneys eliminate the solute.
- A hypotonic solution supplies an excess of sodium and chloride ions.
- Excessive volumes are recommended in the early postoperative period.
- A hypotonic solution is used to treat hyponatremia.
Explanation: Answer reason: Hypotonic fluids have a lower osmolality than plasma, so water shifts from the intravascular space into cells and helps dilute serum solute concentration. In fluid volume deficit with hyperosmolarity/hypernatremia, giving free water is a key physiologic strategy to reduce osmotic load and support renal excretion of excess solute. Options suggesting added sodium/chloride describe hypertonic or isotonic saline effects rather than hypotonic therapy. Treating hyponatremia with hypotonic fluids is unsafe because it can further lower serum sodium and worsen cerebral edema.
During expiration the diaphragm becomes?
- Normal
- Flat
- Round
- Dome-shaped
Explanation: Answer reason: As it relaxes, it resumes its resting configuration, which is domed upward into the thoracic cavity, decreasing thoracic volume and increasing intrathoracic pressure to push air out. By contrast, during inspiration the diaphragm contracts and flattens, increasing thoracic volume to draw air in. Therefore the domed position best matches the diaphragm’s shape during expiration.
The most important electrolyte of intracellular fluid is?
- Sodium
- Potassium
- Chloride
- Calcium
Explanation: Answer reason: This intracellular predominance is essential for resting membrane potential and normal neuromuscular and cardiac excitability. By contrast, sodium and chloride are primarily extracellular ions and therefore are not the key electrolytes within the intracellular compartment. Calcium is critically important for signaling but its free cytosolic concentration is kept very low, so it is not the major intracellular electrolyte by concentration.
Which of the following vitamin helps in blood clotting?
- Vitamin A
- Vitamin C
- Vitamin K
- Vitamin D
Explanation: Answer reason: This post-translational modification enables factors II, VII, IX, and X (and proteins C and S) to bind calcium and participate effectively in the coagulation cascade. Deficiency or antagonism of this vitamin leads to impaired clot formation and increased bleeding tendency. In contrast, vitamin C is primarily involved in collagen synthesis and capillary integrity rather than activating coagulation factors.
Urea produce by ...?
- Kidney
- Liver
- Pancreas
- Nephrons
Explanation: Answer reason: This process converts highly toxic nitrogen waste into urea, a less toxic, water-soluble compound suitable for excretion. The kidneys and their nephrons primarily filter and excrete urea in urine, but they do not produce it. Pancreas is not involved in nitrogen waste conversion to urea.
Haemoglobin is a ________?
- Fat
- Protein
- Vitamin
- Food
Explanation: Answer reason: Its structure enables reversible oxygen binding and transport within red blood cells, which is a key physiologic function of blood. Fats and vitamins do not have the amino-acid–based tertiary/quaternary structure required for ligand binding and transport in this manner. “Food” is not a biochemical class and does not describe the molecule’s composition or function.
Enzyme present in Tears is?
- Amylase
- Pepsin
- Lysozyme
- Angiotensin
Explanation: Answer reason: Lysozyme is a key tear enzyme that hydrolyzes peptidoglycan in bacterial cell walls, especially affecting Gram-positive organisms, thereby helping prevent eye infections. This fits normal physiology of protective secretions of the lacrimal apparatus. In contrast, pepsin is a gastric protease and amylase is primarily found in saliva/pancreatic secretions, not as a characteristic tear enzyme.
Liver helps in formation of?
- Urea
- Urine
- Sweat
- Saliva
Explanation: Answer reason: This conversion is essential for nitrogen waste detoxification so it can be safely transported in blood to the kidneys for excretion. Urine is formed by the kidneys through filtration, reabsorption, and secretion within nephrons, not by the liver. Sweat and saliva are produced primarily by sweat glands and salivary glands, respectively, and are not liver-formed products.
Where Storage of Glycogen?
- Liver
- Stomach
- Kidney
- None of these
Explanation: Answer reason: The liver is a primary glycogen reservoir and can break glycogen down and release glucose into the bloodstream via glucose-6-phosphatase. Skeletal muscle also stores glycogen, but it cannot directly contribute glucose to blood because it lacks glucose-6-phosphatase. Stomach and kidney are not physiologic glycogen storage sites in standard exam context, making the liver the best answer.
Deficiency of Oxygen affects most the?
- Brain
- Skin
- Kidney
- Intestine
Explanation: Answer reason: With hypoxemia or interrupted perfusion, ATP production rapidly fails, leading to loss of neuronal function within minutes and irreversible injury soon after. In contrast, skin and intestine are relatively more tolerant due to lower baseline metabolic demand and greater ability to reduce activity during hypoxia. Although kidneys are also sensitive to hypoperfusion, the brain is typically the earliest and most critically affected organ in acute oxygen deficiency.
The human body is made up of approximately what proportion of water?
- 50%
- 60%
- 70%
- 80%
Explanation: Answer reason: This estimate is foundational for understanding fluid status, dehydration, and dosing concepts that depend on body composition. While values can vary by age, sex, and adiposity (higher fat lowers percent water), the best single approximation for adults is about 60%. Options like 70–80% are more consistent with neonates/infants, not the average adult.
The nurse reviews the arterial blood gas results of a client and notes the following: pH 7.45, Pco2 30 mm Hg, and HCO3 22 mEq/L (22 mmol/L). The nurse analyzes these results as indicating which condition?
- Metabolic acidosis, compensated
- Respiratory alkalosis, compensated
- Metabolic alkalosis, uncompensated
- Respiratory acidosis, uncompensated
Explanation: Answer reason: Here the pH is at the alkalemic end (7.45) and the PaCO2 is low (30 mm Hg), so the primary disturbance is respiratory alkalosis. The bicarbonate is not elevated and sits at the low end of normal (22 mEq/L), which is consistent with renal compensation (kidneys excrete bicarbonate to offset the alkalemia). This pattern rules out metabolic alkalosis, which would require an increased bicarbonate, and it is not respiratory acidosis because PaCO2 is not elevated.
Which vitamin is made at a higher rate in our body?
- Vitamin A
- Vitamin B
- Vitamin C
- Vitamin D
Explanation: Answer reason: This makes it the vitamin most notably made by the body in meaningful amounts under adequate sun exposure. In contrast, vitamins A, B-complex, and C are not synthesized in sufficient quantities by humans and therefore must be obtained primarily from dietary sources (with some B vitamins produced by gut flora but not reliably enough). Clinically, impaired sun exposure, malabsorption, or liver/kidney disease can reduce activation and lead to deficiency despite this synthetic pathway.
Which carbohydrate is known as "blood sugar"?
- Fructose
- Sucrose
- Glucose
- Cellulose
Explanation: Answer reason: This molecule is the standard analyte measured in capillary and serum testing (e.g., fasting plasma levels) and is central to diagnosing and managing diabetes mellitus. Fructose is mainly a dietary sugar metabolized largely in the liver and is not the principal circulating carbohydrate used to define glycemia. Sucrose is a disaccharide that must be digested into monosaccharides before absorption, and cellulose is an indigestible polysaccharide (dietary fiber) in humans.
Erythropoietin is secreted by which organ?
- Liver
- Kidney
- Bone marrow
- Spleen
Explanation: Answer reason: Peritubular interstitial cells in the kidney sense decreased oxygen delivery and release this hormone to stimulate erythropoiesis in the bone marrow. This explains why chronic kidney disease commonly causes normocytic anemia due to reduced hormone synthesis. The liver can contribute in fetal life and to a lesser extent in adults, but it is not the main source in typical physiology.
Which vitamin is important for proper blood clotting?
- Vitamin A
- Vitamin E
- Vitamin K
- Vitamin C
Explanation: Answer reason: This vitamin enables gamma-carboxylation of factors II, VII, IX, and X (and proteins C and S), allowing them to bind calcium and participate effectively in the coagulation cascade. Deficiency therefore leads to impaired clot formation and increased bleeding risk. By contrast, vitamin C is primarily needed for collagen synthesis and capillary integrity rather than activating coagulation factors.
A client is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The client is most likely to exhibit which of the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results?
- PH 7.26, PaCO2 56, HCO3 23
- PH 7.30, PaCO2 30, HCO3 15
- PH 7.40, PaCO2 40, HCO3 24
- PH 7.58, PaCO2 48, HCO3 44
Explanation: Answer reason: pH 7.30, PaCO2 30, HCO3 15 DKA causes a primary metabolic acidosis from accumulation of ketoacids, so the bicarbonate level falls and pH becomes acidotic. The expected physiologic compensation is respiratory alkalosis via Kussmaul respirations, which lowers PaCO2. This option shows low pH with low HCO3 and an appropriately decreased PaCO2 consistent with compensation. In contrast, an elevated PaCO2 with near-normal bicarbonate would suggest primary respiratory acidosis rather than DKA.
Contraction of heart is also known as ...?
- Systole
- Aristotle
- Diastole
- Lub
Explanation: Answer reason: During systole, ventricular muscle contracts, intraventricular pressure rises, and blood is ejected into the aorta and pulmonary artery. Diastole instead refers to myocardial relaxation with ventricular filling, so it does not match “contraction.” “Lub” is a heart sound (S1) associated with AV valve closure near the onset of systole, not the name of the contraction phase.
Normal Respiratory Rate (Adult) is?
- 12–20 breaths/min
- 6–8 breaths/min
- 25–30 breaths/min
- 30–40 breaths/min
Explanation: Answer reason: Values lower than this (e.g., 6–8/min) suggest bradypnea and can indicate CNS depression, opioid effect, or impending respiratory failure. Rates in the mid-20s to 40/min represent tachypnea, commonly seen with fever, pain, anxiety, hypoxemia, acidosis, or shock. Therefore the only option that matches the normal physiologic adult range is the stated normal interval.
In which phase of wound healing, the wound appears pink and vascular?
- Scar contraction phase
- Initial phase
- Maturation phase
- Granulation phase
Explanation: Answer reason: Angiogenesis plus fibroblast activity and early collagen deposition create a beefy, vascular appearance that bleeds easily with minor trauma. In the initial (inflammatory) phase, the wound is more likely to be erythematous, edematous, and exudative rather than uniformly pink and granular. In maturation/remodeling, vascularity decreases and the scar becomes paler and flatter rather than pink and highly vascular.
The food that enters the intestine from stomach is called ________?
- Chyme
- Fundus
- Chyle
- Bolus
Explanation: Answer reason: This material is termed chyme and reflects the acidic, enzyme-containing stomach contents after mechanical and chemical processing. A common distractor is bolus, which refers to chewed food mixed with saliva in the mouth and esophagus before gastric processing. Chyle instead is lymph rich in absorbed fats formed in the small intestine lacteals, and fundus is an anatomical region of the stomach rather than the food mixture.
The nurse reviews the following arterial blood gases and understands that the patient has which acid-base imbalance? pH 7.49, PCO2 41, HCO3 38?
- Compensated metabolic alkalosis
- Compensated respiratory acidosis
- Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
- Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis
Explanation: Answer reason: The bicarbonate is markedly elevated (HCO3 38), indicating a metabolic cause. Expected respiratory compensation would raise PaCO2, but the PaCO2 is normal (41), so compensation is not occurring. This rules out compensated metabolic alkalosis and is inconsistent with respiratory acidosis, which would have a low pH and high PaCO2.
The mineral required to control the heart beat is...?
- Sodium
- Sulfur
- Potassium
- Iron
Explanation: Answer reason: Potassium is the dominant intracellular cation and is the primary determinant of resting membrane potential; abnormal levels can readily trigger dysrhythmias and conduction disturbances. Hypokalemia increases ectopy and risk of ventricular arrhythmias, while hyperkalemia slows conduction and can cause life-threatening rhythm changes. Sodium contributes mainly to depolarization and extracellular fluid balance, but it is not the key mineral classically tied to controlling heartbeat/rhythm stability in this context.
What is the main function of the liver?
- Store Glucose
- Filter Toxins from Blood
- Produce Enzymes
- Secrete Hormones
Explanation: Answer reason: Hepatocytes perform biotransformation of drugs and toxins and convert ammonia to urea for excretion, making detoxification the most comprehensive “main function” among the choices. Glucose storage as glycogen is important but represents only one part of broader metabolic homeostasis. The other options are less accurate as primary liver functions because most digestive enzymes are produced by the pancreas, and the liver is not primarily an endocrine gland in the way implied.
Breathing rate in adult human is about?
- 6/min
- 12–16/min
- 25/min
- 40/min
Explanation: Answer reason: The option 12–16/min falls squarely within this expected normal range and is commonly used as a standard “about” value in exams. A rate of 6/min is bradypnea and suggests central nervous system depression or impending respiratory failure. Rates such as 25/min or 40/min indicate tachypnea and are more consistent with fever, pain, anxiety, hypoxemia, metabolic acidosis, or significant cardiopulmonary illness rather than normal resting breathing.
Destruction of RBC takes place in ...?
- Lymph gland
- Spleen
- Pancreas
- Liver
Explanation: Answer reason: The spleen is the key site for this extravascular hemolysis because its narrow splenic cords and sinusoids mechanically filter less-deformable RBCs and expose them to macrophages. After phagocytosis, hemoglobin is broken down with iron recycled and heme converted to bilirubin for transport to the liver. While the liver can also contribute via Kupffer cells, the spleen is the classic primary organ for RBC destruction tested in basic physiology.
Blood temperature is normally?
- 35°C
- 36°C
- 37°C
- 38°C
Explanation: Answer reason: Blood temperature closely reflects core temperature under normal homeostatic conditions, which is approximately 37°C (98.6°F). Values like 35–36°C are below normal core temperature and would suggest hypothermia or a low measurement site, while 38°C indicates fever/hyperthermia. Therefore, the best single normal value for blood (core) temperature is 37°C.
Which mineral strengthens bones?
- Iron
- Calcium
- Sodium
- Potassium
Explanation: Answer reason: Bone strength primarily depends on mineralization of the collagen matrix with hydroxyapatite, which is largely composed of calcium and phosphate. Adequate calcium availability supports normal bone formation and maintenance of bone density, reducing fracture risk. In contrast, iron is mainly required for hemoglobin and oxygen transport rather than skeletal mineralization. Sodium and potassium are critical electrolytes for fluid balance and neuromuscular function but are not the key structural minerals that provide bone hardness and strength. Therefore, calcium is the best answer.
In dehydration, the first sign is ...?
- Thirst
- Dry mouth
- Sunken eyes
- Lethargy
Explanation: Answer reason: This occurs before more overt physical findings develop because it is a neurohormonal warning signal to increase water intake and restore osmotic balance. Dry mucous membranes and sunken eyes generally appear with more progressed volume depletion. Lethargy is typically a later sign associated with worsening dehydration and reduced perfusion or significant electrolyte disturbance.
What is nicknamed the "Happiness Hormone"?
- Cortisol
- Adrenaline
- Serotonin
- Insulin
Explanation: Answer reason: This makes it the best match for the commonly used nickname “happiness hormone,” especially in exam-style questions. By contrast, cortisol is primarily a stress hormone, and adrenaline mediates acute fight-or-flight responses rather than sustained positive mood. Insulin’s primary role is glucose regulation and energy storage, not mood elevation.
Metabolic acidosis is best compensated by?
- Kidney
- Liver
- Lung
- Heart
Explanation: Answer reason: In metabolic acidosis, the body increases alveolar ventilation (Kussmaul respirations) to lower PaCO2, which reduces carbonic acid and raises pH toward normal. Renal mechanisms are crucial for the long-term correction (regenerating bicarbonate and excreting acid), but they are slower and are not the main compensatory system. The liver and heart do not serve as the principal physiologic compensators for systemic acid–base balance.
Which hormone stimulates red blood cell production?
- Erythropoietin
- Thyroxine
- Adrenaline
- Glucagon
Explanation: Answer reason: Erythropoietin is produced mainly by the kidneys in response to tissue hypoxia and stimulates proliferation and differentiation of erythroid progenitor cells in the marrow. This increases hemoglobin and oxygen-carrying capacity, correcting the hypoxic trigger via negative feedback. Thyroxine can raise metabolic rate and indirectly influence hematopoiesis, but it is not the key physiologic driver of erythropoiesis. Adrenaline and glucagon primarily mediate acute stress responses and glucose regulation, respectively, rather than directly stimulating RBC production.
Saliva Contains the Enzyme?
- Amylase
- Lipase
- Peptides
- Pepsin
Explanation: Answer reason: Salivary amylase (ptyalin) begins the breakdown of starch into smaller carbohydrates, making it the key digestive enzyme classically associated with saliva. Pepsin is a gastric enzyme activated in the acidic stomach, not present in saliva. While small amounts of lingual lipase can be secreted in the oral cavity, the standard single-best answer for an enzyme in saliva in basic physiology is amylase.
Which organ is called blood bank?
- Liver
- Spleen
- Heart
- Lung
Explanation: Answer reason: The spleen stores a significant volume of blood, particularly platelets (and in some animals more RBCs), and can contract to release stored blood elements into circulation during physiologic stress. It also filters aged or damaged red blood cells and participates in immune surveillance, linking storage with blood quality control. By contrast, the liver is central to protein synthesis and metabolism but is not considered the primary physiologic blood reservoir termed the “blood bank.”.
A nurse on a medical unit is assigned patients with acid-base irregularities. While caring for a patient with gastric lavage or prolonged vomiting, the nurse should assess for?
- Acidosis
- Alkalosis
- Loss of osmotic pressure
- Reduction in hemoglobin
Explanation: Answer reason: This disturbance is often accompanied by hypochloremia and hypokalemia, so the nurse should also be alert for related neuromuscular symptoms (e.g., weakness, cramps) and dysrhythmias. Acidosis would be more consistent with diarrhea (bicarbonate loss) or hypoventilation/CO2 retention, not loss of gastric acid. The other options do not represent the primary acid-base effect of gastric acid loss.
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