Physiology Practice Test 21
Physiology NCLEX Practice Test
Physiology is a key topic within the NCLEX test plan, located under Nursing Science → Clinical Foundations → Physiology. This section explores body functions to strengthen nursing understanding of assessment and intervention planning. Each test contains 50 questions designed to mirror the difficulty and variety of the real exam.
This is the 21st part of the Physiology series. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
Continue Learning
In the Physiology Study Cards section, shared by real NCLEX candidates, you’ll find concise summaries and high-yield insights related to the most tested concepts. It’s a perfect space to reinforce challenging topics and sharpen your recall through quick, focused repetitions. Short, powerful, and repeatable!
Physiology Practice Test 21
A nurse is caring for a client who is on a mechanical ventilator. Blood gas results indicate a pH of 7.50 and a PCO2 of 30 mm Hg. The nurse has determined that the client is experiencing respiratory alkalosis. Which laboratory value would most likely be noted in this condition?
- Sodium level of 145 mEq/L
- Potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L
- Magnesium level of 2.0 mg/L
- Phosphorus level of 4.0 mg/dl
Explanation: Answer reason: Potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L Respiratory alkalosis (high pH with low PaCO2) drives hydrogen ions out of cells to buffer the alkalemia, and potassium shifts into cells to maintain electroneutrality. This intracellular shift lowers serum potassium, making hypokalemia a common associated finding. A potassium of 3.0 mEq/L reflects this expected change and can contribute to dysrhythmia risk, especially in ventilated patients with ongoing hyperventilation. The other listed electrolytes are within typical reference ranges and are not the characteristic, most likely lab abnormality from acute respiratory alkalosis.
A nurse reviews the arterial blood gas results of a patient and notes the following: pH 7.45; PCO2 30 mm Hg; and bicarbonate concentration of 22 mEq/L. The nurse analyzes these results as indicating:
- Metabolic acidosis, compensated.
- Metabolic alkalosis, uncompensated.
- Respiratory alkalosis, compensated
- Respiratory acidosis, compensated.
Explanation: Answer reason: The pH is at the high end of normal (7.45) while PaCO2 is low (30 mm Hg), indicating a primary respiratory alkalosis due to CO2 “blow-off.” The bicarbonate is slightly low (22 mEq/L), which represents renal compensation (loss of bicarbonate) moving in the expected direction for respiratory alkalosis. This pattern fits a compensated respiratory alkalosis, rather than metabolic alkalosis which would show elevated bicarbonate as the primary driver.
Which of the following is an example of a positive effect of exercise on a client?
- Decreased basal metabolic rate
- Decreased venous return
- Decreased work of breathing
- Decreased gastric motility
Explanation: Answer reason: This leads to lower perceived dyspnea and a reduced effort required to move air, especially during submaximal activity. In contrast, regular exercise typically increases basal metabolic rate over time via increased lean body mass rather than decreasing it. Decreased venous return and decreased gastric motility are not expected beneficial physiologic adaptations to exercise and may indicate undesirable effects depending on context.
When a parent observes the parent's young child heading toward a busy road the parent becomes stressed, feeling the parent's heart pounding, breathing heavily, and hands becoming wet with perspiration. Which physiological system is activated with the parent's "fight or flight" reaction to this danger?
- Motherly response system
- Sympathetic nervous system
- Parasympathetic nervous system
- Central nervous system
Explanation: Answer reason: Sympathetic activation increases heart rate and contractility, increases respiratory rate/bronchodilation, and stimulates eccrine sweat glands causing diaphoresis. These physiologic changes match the stem’s palpitations, heavy breathing, and sweating. The parasympathetic system generally produces the opposite “rest-and-digest” effects, making it an inconsistent choice here.
A male adult patient hospitalized for treatment of a pulmonary embolism develops respiratory alkalosis. Which clinical findings commonly accompany respiratory alkalosis?
- Nausea or vomiting
- Abdominal pain or diarrhea
- Hallucinations or tinnitus
- Lightheadedness or paresthesia
Explanation: Answer reason: The drop in ionized calcium increases neuromuscular excitability, producing perioral and extremity tingling (paresthesias) and sometimes carpopedal spasm. Cerebral vasoconstriction from hypocapnia decreases cerebral blood flow, commonly causing dizziness or lightheadedness. By contrast, prominent GI upset (nausea/vomiting, abdominal pain/diarrhea) is more characteristic of metabolic disturbances rather than primary respiratory alkalosis.
A nurse understands that the excessive use of oral antacids containing bicarbonate can result in which acid-base disturbance?
- Respiratory alkalosis
- Respiratory acidosis
- Metabolic acidosis
- Metabolic alkalosis
Explanation: Answer reason: This is a primary metabolic process rather than a ventilatory change, so it produces a metabolic alkalosis. The kidneys can excrete excess bicarbonate, but with heavy intake (and especially if renal function or effective circulating volume is reduced), compensation may be insufficient and alkalosis develops. In contrast, respiratory disturbances require a primary change in CO2 from altered ventilation, which is not the mechanism of bicarbonate-containing antacids.
A client’s ABG results are as follows: pH: 7.16; PaCO2 80 mm Hg; PaO2 46 mm Hg; HCO3- 24 mEq/L; SaO2 81%. This ABG result represents which of the following conditions?
- Metabolic acidosis
- Metabolic alkalosis
- Respiratory acidosis
- Respiratory alkalosis
Explanation: Answer reason: Here, the pH is markedly low (7.16), indicating acidemia, while PaCO2 is very high (80 mm Hg), showing CO2 retention as the primary driver. The bicarbonate is normal (HCO3- 24 mEq/L), which indicates little to no metabolic compensation and supports an acute or uncompensated primary respiratory problem. The very low PaO2 and SaO2 further fit hypoventilation/respiratory failure physiology where inadequate alveolar ventilation causes both hypercapnia and hypoxemia. Metabolic acidosis would instead show a decreased HCO3- as the primary abnormality with compensatory low PaCO2.
Baby M is 5 months old. You notice that she now has the ability to grasp objects between her fingers and opposing thumb. This is known as?
- Parachute reflex
- Grasp reflex
- Pincer grasp
- Prehension
Explanation: Answer reason: Grasping an object between the thumb and fingertip(s) defines the pincer pattern, which emerges as cortical control over the hand improves. The palmar grasp reflex is an earlier, involuntary response and does not require purposeful thumb opposition. The parachute reflex is a protective extension response and is not a hand grasping skill.
The first sign of puberty in boys is?
- Enlargement of testes
- Decreased levels of testosterone
- Voice deepening
- Pubic hair
Explanation: Answer reason: The earliest reliable clinical marker is testicular enlargement due to growth of seminiferous tubules and increased testicular volume. Pubic hair typically follows and reflects androgen effects (including adrenal androgens), while voice deepening occurs later with higher androgen exposure. Decreased testosterone is inconsistent with puberty physiology because testosterone rises rather than falls.
Itdlerly patients are more prone to dehydration than younger people because the elderly .?
- Drink more coffee and tea
- Have more stomach mucus production
- Have more saliva
- Have less sense of thirst
Explanation: Answer reason: Because older adults often do not perceive thirst until dehydration is more advanced, they are less likely to replace ongoing fluid losses. This physiologic change is a primary, direct reason dehydration risk increases with age even without other illnesses. In contrast, beverage choices like coffee or tea can contribute to diuresis, but they are not the key age-related mechanism that broadly explains the increased baseline risk.
According to Erikson’s developmental theory, toddlers need to be encouraged to become independent and the caregiver should allow everything for them. He believes that the toddler should be allowed gradually increasing levels of independence to develop a sense of security and successfully complete which developmental challenge?
- Trust vs. mistrust
- Industry vs. inferiority
- Autonomy vs. shame and doubt
- Initiative vs. guilt
Explanation: Answer reason: Autonomy vs. shame and doubt Erikson’s toddler stage centers on developing self-control and independence through safe choices and opportunities to do tasks alone. Gradually increasing independence supports mastery of toileting, feeding, dressing, and decision-making, which builds confidence and self-efficacy. Overly restrictive or critical caregiving promotes doubt and shame, undermining this developmental task. By contrast, trust vs. mistrust is the infant stage, and initiative vs. guilt and industry vs. inferiority apply to preschool and school-age children, respectively.
The heat-regulating center of the brain is the?
- Hypothalamus
- Pituitary Gland
- Pons
- Medulla Oblongata
Explanation: Answer reason: The hypothalamus (especially the preoptic/anterior area) serves as the primary thermostat, coordinating heat loss (sweating, vasodilation) and heat conservation/production (shivering, vasoconstriction). The pituitary is a major endocrine gland but is not the primary neural control center for temperature regulation. The pons and medulla mainly govern vital respiratory and cardiovascular functions rather than body temperature set-point control.
The nurse finds a client pacing the hallway with an anxious expression. Which automatic physical assessment data would the nurse expect to see?
- Facial pallor
- Lower heart rate
- Hyperactive bowel sounds
- Dilated pupils
Explanation: Answer reason: Pupillary dilation improves visual acuity in perceived threat states and is a classic sympathetic sign. In contrast, parasympathetic activation would be associated with pupillary constriction and lower heart rate, making that option inconsistent with acute anxiety. GI hyperactivity is more consistent with increased parasympathetic tone, whereas acute stress more often reduces GI motility.
Play activities of the pre-school age child include:
- Having imaginary playmates
- Selective collection of objects
- Complex board games
- Associative play
Explanation: Answer reason: Inventing imaginary friends reflects symbolic thinking and helps practice social roles, emotional regulation, and language skills. In contrast, complex board games generally require more advanced rule-based reasoning typical of school-age children. While associative play is also seen in preschoolers, the most characteristic single feature among the options is the presence of imaginary companions as part of dramatic/fantasy play.
You overhear a pre-school child and her mother having a conversation in the waiting room. Mom: why does the sun shine? Pre-school child: to keep warm. Based on the child’s response you suspect that she is exhibiting which type of early childhood thinking?
- Animism
- Artificialism
- Egocentrism
- Centering
Explanation: Answer reason: Saying the sun shines “to keep warm” reflects a self-centered, purpose-from-me viewpoint rather than an objective physical cause. Artificialism would be attributing natural events to being made by people (e.g., “someone turned on the sun”), and animism would give the sun human-like intentions or feelings. Centering is focusing on one salient feature of a situation (e.g., quantity conservation errors), which is not what this response demonstrates.
All of the following are complications associated with hypothermia during the perioperative period ttxCtPt?
- Decreased blood urea nitrogen levels
- Cardiac arrhythmias
- Decreased immunity
- Increased oxygen needs
Explanation: Answer reason: It also increases the risk of myocardial irritability and conduction abnormalities, making dysrhythmias a recognized complication. Hypothermia impairs platelet function and neutrophil activity, contributing to coagulopathy and increased surgical site infection risk (reduced immune defenses). A reduction in BUN is not a typical physiologic consequence of hypothermia, whereas the other listed effects align with well-established perioperative hypothermia complications.
Infants are able to raise the head before he or she can sit and gains control of the trunk before walking as a result of which kind of directional pattern of development?
- Cephalocaudal
- Anterior to posterior
- Proximodistal
- Normal growth curve charts
Explanation: Answer reason: Head and neck control appear earlier than trunk stability, which precedes standing and walking. This pattern explains why infants lift the head before they can sit and stabilize the trunk before they can ambulate. Proximodistal describes control moving from the center of the body outward to the extremities, which is a different directional concept.
Linn is a 42-year-old woman who is in the process of moving house after her divorce. She reports experiencing bouts of increased anxiety recently. How can the nurse best explain the physiological adaptation that occurs during fight or flight to this client?
- An increase in blood flow to the muscles
- An increased immune response and digestion
- A decrease in heart rate and blood pressure
- A decrease in blood clotting ability
Explanation: Answer reason: Blood is preferentially shunted toward skeletal muscle via increased cardiac output and redistribution of vascular tone, improving oxygen and nutrient delivery for running or fighting. In contrast, digestion and many immune functions are generally downregulated during acute stress, not increased. Heart rate and blood pressure typically rise (not fall), and clotting tendency generally increases to reduce bleeding risk if injury occurs.
Which of the following is more likely to occur with aging as a complication of medication administration?
- Increased renal function
- Increased gastrointestinal absorption
- Increased visual acuity
- Increased ratio of fat compared to lean body mass
Explanation: Answer reason: Older adults generally have higher body fat and lower lean body mass and total body water, which increases the volume of distribution for lipid-soluble drugs and can prolong their half-life and sedation/toxicity risk. In contrast, renal function typically declines with age (not increases), which is a major driver of medication accumulation. Visual acuity and gastrointestinal absorption also tend to decrease or be less reliably increased with aging, making them incorrect as “more likely” changes.
A nurse is collecting data from a client who has a calcium level of 8 mg/dL. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
- Elevated blood pressure
- Tetany
- Constipation
- Negative Chvostek sign
Explanation: Answer reason: This produces classic findings such as paresthesias, muscle cramps, carpopedal spasm, and tetany. In contrast, constipation is more consistent with hypercalcemia due to decreased smooth muscle contractility. Hypocalcemia is associated with a positive (not negative) Chvostek sign, reflecting heightened neuromuscular irritability.
Approximately how much bile is produced by the liver every 24 hours?
- 36 ounces
- 30 ounces
- 18 ounces
- 24ounces
Explanation: Answer reason: 5–1.0 L per day (often cited around 600–1000 mL/24 hr). Converting to ounces, this range is approximately 17–34 ounces, making 30 ounces a reasonable “approximate” value within the accepted physiologic range. The smaller value is closer to the low end and is less representative of typical daily production. The larger value would substantially exceed usual daily bile output in healthy adults.
A young patient who was hit by a car was fortunate because the level at his injury did not interrupt his respiratory function. The spinal cord segments involved with maintaining respiratory function are?
- Thoracic level 5 and 6
- Thoracic level 2 and 3
- Cervical level 7 and 8
- Cervical level 3 and 4
Explanation: Answer reason: An injury at or above these levels can paralyze the diaphragm and severely impair breathing or require ventilatory support. The thoracic levels primarily contribute to intercostal muscle function, which affects breathing mechanics but is less critical than the diaphragm for basic ventilation. Therefore, the cervical segments closest to the phrenic nerve origin are the key segments for maintaining respiratory function among the options provided.
"The development starts with the head and gradually proceeds to the tail portion." This principle of development is called ?
- Cephalocaudal development
- Proximodistal
- General to special
- According to age
Explanation: Answer reason: This explains why infants gain control of head and neck movements before trunk stability, sitting, standing, and walking. The described “head to tail” progression precisely matches the cephalocaudal principle. A common distractor is proximodistal, which instead describes development from the center of the body outward to the extremities.
Sunlight is Great source of?
- Vitamin C
- Vitamin D
- Vitamin K
- Vitamin E
Explanation: Answer reason: This makes sunlight a key natural contributor to vitamin D status, supporting calcium/phosphate homeostasis and bone mineralization. In contrast, vitamin C primarily comes from fruits and vegetables and is not synthesized via sunlight exposure. Vitamins E and K are mainly obtained from dietary fats/plant sources and gut flora, not from UV-driven skin synthesis.
What type of muscle is voluntary..?
- Skeletal
- Cardiac
- Smooth
- None
Explanation: Answer reason: Skeletal muscle attaches to bones (via tendons) and produces intentional movements such as walking, lifting, and posture adjustments. Cardiac muscle and smooth muscle are controlled involuntarily through autonomic regulation and intrinsic pacemaker activity or local factors. Therefore, the only voluntary muscle type listed is the one associated with the musculoskeletal system.
Approximately how much bile is produced by the liver every 24 hours?
- 36 ounces
- 30 ounces
- 18 ounces
- 24ounces
Explanation: Answer reason: Converting to ounces, ~500 mL is about 17 fluid ounces and ~1000 mL is about 34 fluid ounces, so a commonly taught single approximate value is near the lower end (~500 mL/day). This makes the choice closest to typical “about 0.5 L/day” physiology. Options like 24 ounces or 36 ounces can occur depending on the reference range, but they align more with higher daily outputs rather than the standard approximate figure often tested.
Which of the following is responsible for the regulation of body temperature in humans?
- Hypothalamus
- Pituitary gland
- Thyroid gland
- Adrenal gland
Explanation: Answer reason: The hypothalamus contains thermosensitive neurons and integrates input from peripheral and central receptors to trigger heat-loss (sweating, cutaneous vasodilation) or heat-gain (shivering, vasoconstriction) mechanisms. This makes it the primary control center for maintaining homeostasis of body temperature. The pituitary, thyroid, and adrenal glands influence metabolism and stress responses, but they do not serve as the main thermostat regulating rapid temperature adjustments.
The nurse admitting a 5 month-old who vomited 9 times in the past 6 hours should observe for signs of which overall imbalance?
- Metabolic acidosis
- Metabolic alkalosis
- Some increase in the serum hemoglobin
- A little decrease in the serum potassium
Explanation: Answer reason: A 5‑month‑old with frequent emesis is therefore most at risk for alkalemia with compensatory hypoventilation and signs such as irritability, neuromuscular excitability, and potential dysrhythmias. Volume depletion from vomiting can also activate the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system, promoting renal hydrogen loss and worsening alkalosis. Potassium may fall as a related finding, but the overarching acid–base disturbance from gastric acid loss is alkalosis rather than acidosis.
The most common reason for an Apgar score of 8 and 9 in a newborn is an abnormality of what parameter?
- Heart rate
- Muscle tone
- Cry
- Color
Explanation: Answer reason: Many vigorous term newborns have a pink trunk with bluish hands/feet in the first minutes after birth, reflecting immature peripheral circulation rather than significant hypoxia. Heart rate, respiratory effort (cry), and muscle tone are usually normal in an infant scoring 8–9, so these categories typically receive full points. Therefore, the most common abnormal parameter explaining scores of 8 or 9 is the appearance component.
Which of these is an example of a variation in the newborn resulting from the presence of maternal hormones?
- Engorgement of the breasts
- Mongolian spots
- Edema of the scrotum
- Lanugo
Explanation: Answer reason: This is a common, benign newborn finding that resolves without treatment other than avoiding manipulation. In contrast, Mongolian spots are dermal melanocytosis (pigmentation variant), lanugo relates to fetal hair development, and scrotal edema is more related to fluid shifts or birth-related factors rather than direct maternal hormone effects. Recognizing hormone-mediated normal variations helps prevent unnecessary workup and reduces caregiver anxiety.
A newborn delivered at home without a birth attendant is admitted to the hospital for observation. The initial temperature is 35 degrees Celsius (95 degrees Fahrenheit) axillary. The nurse recognizes that cold stress may lead to what complication?
- Lowered BMR
- Reduced PaO2
- Lethargy
- Metabolic alkalosis
Explanation: Answer reason: This heightened metabolic demand can outstrip oxygen delivery, leading to hypoxemia with a fall in arterial oxygen tension. Hypoxia may then contribute to secondary problems such as anaerobic metabolism and metabolic acidosis, not alkalosis. “Lowered BMR” is the opposite of the physiologic response, and “lethargy” is a possible symptom but is less specific than the key gas-exchange complication.
In evaluating the growth of a 12 month-old child, which of these findings would the nurse expect to be present in the infant?
- Increased 10% in height
- 2 deciduous teeth
- Tripled the birth weight
- Head > chest circumference
Explanation: Answer reason: This makes the weight tripling milestone the expected finding at 1 year. The other options do not match standard 12‑month norms: length increases far more than 10% over the first year, and having only 2 deciduous teeth is possible but not the most reliable growth milestone. Also by around 12 months, chest circumference generally equals or begins to exceed head circumference, so head greater than chest is not expected.
An adolescent client is admitted in respiratory alkalosis following aspirin overdose. The nurse recognizes that this imbalance was caused by?
- Tachypnea
- Acidic byproducts
- Vomiting and dehydration
- Hyperpyrexia
Explanation: Answer reason: Early salicylate toxicity directly stimulates the respiratory center, producing rapid, deep breathing and excessive CO2 “blow-off.” This mechanism explains why the initial acid–base disturbance after aspirin overdose is respiratory alkalosis. Acidic byproducts are more associated with the later anion-gap metabolic acidosis of salicylate poisoning, not the primary cause of respiratory alkalosis.
First-time parents bring their 5 day-old infant to the pediatrician's office because they are extremely concerned about its breathing pattern. The nurse assesses the baby and finds that the breath sounds are clear with equal chest expansion. The respiratory rate is 38-42 breaths per minute with occasional periods of apnea lasting 10 seconds in length. What is the correct analysis of these findings?
- The pediatrician must examine the baby
- Emergency equipment should be available
- This breathing pattern is normal
- A future referral may be indicated
Explanation: Answer reason: An apnea duration of about 10 seconds without signs of distress (e.g., cyanosis, bradycardia, retractions) and with clear, equal breath sounds is generally a normal physiologic variant in a 5-day-old. The respiratory rate of 38–42/min is within the expected neonatal range. A key red flag would be apnea ≥20 seconds or associated color change or poor tone, which is not described here. Therefore, escalation steps like emergency readiness or specialist referral are not indicated based on these findings alone.
Nerve impulse is conducted toward the cell body through __?
- Motor neurons
- Nerve fibers
- Axon
- Dendrons
Explanation: Answer reason: Incoming synaptic signals are received on dendritic processes and propagate centripetally to the soma for integration. By contrast, an axon is specialized for transmitting action potentials from the soma to other neurons or effector organs. “Nerve fibers” is a nonspecific term that can refer to axons (and sometimes dendritic processes), so it does not uniquely identify the structure conducting toward the cell body.
Stomach Which of the following cells produces HCL?
- Beta cells
- Oxyntic cells
- Chief cells
- Alpha cells
Explanation: Answer reason: Oxyntic cells are another name for parietal cells, so they are the direct source of HCl in gastric juice. Chief cells primarily secrete pepsinogen (and gastric lipase), not acid. Alpha and beta cells are pancreatic islet cells (glucagon and insulin), so they do not produce gastric HCl.
_____ is the enzyme that converts Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I.?
- Rennin
- ACE
- ANP
- ADH
Explanation: Answer reason: Renin, released by juxtaglomerular cells in the kidney in response to low renal perfusion, low sodium delivery, or sympathetic stimulation, cleaves angiotensinogen into angiotensin I. ACE acts downstream to convert angiotensin I into angiotensin II, not from angiotensinogen. ANP generally opposes RAAS by promoting natriuresis, and ADH primarily increases water reabsorption in the collecting ducts.
Which of the following is the primary function of red blood cells in the human body?
- Transporting oxygen to body tissues
- Fighting off infections and pathogens
- Producing and releasing hormones
- Removing waste products from the body
Explanation: Answer reason: Red blood cells are specialized for gas transport because they are packed with hemoglobin, which binds oxygen in the lungs and releases it to peripheral tissues based on local oxygen tension. This function is essential for aerobic cellular metabolism and ATP production throughout the body. In contrast, immune defense is primarily performed by white blood cells, not erythrocytes. While red blood cells also help carry some carbon dioxide and buffer acid-base status, their primary role remains delivering oxygen to tissues.
Decreased perceptual response to a repeated stimulus is known as?
- Illusion
- Hallucination
- Habituation
- Adaptation
Explanation: Answer reason: This is a basic learning and sensory processing phenomenon where the stimulus becomes less salient over time. Illusions and hallucinations are perceptual disturbances (misinterpretation vs perception without stimulus) and do not describe response decrement from repetition. While “adaptation” can refer to receptor-level decreased responsiveness, the term that specifically matches decreased perceptual response with repetition in psychology/behavioral physiology is habituation.
Which of the following is not required to clot formation?
- Vit K
- Calcium
- Plasmin
- Fibrinogen
Explanation: Answer reason: Plasmin is part of the fibrinolytic system and functions to break down fibrin, leading to clot dissolution rather than formation. Therefore it is not required for clot formation and instead counter-regulates it. A common confusion is between plasmin and plasminogen; plasminogen is the inactive precursor, but the plasmin pathway still supports clot breakdown, not clot creation.
The process of protein synthesis takes place in the:
- Nucleus
- Ribosome
- Golgi body
- Lysosome
Explanation: Answer reason: Ribosomes may be free in the cytosol (often producing intracellular proteins) or bound to rough endoplasmic reticulum (often producing secreted/membrane proteins). The nucleus is primarily responsible for DNA storage and transcription (mRNA production), not translation. The Golgi apparatus modifies and packages proteins after they are made, and lysosomes are involved in intracellular digestion.
A nurse checks in on a patient who is sleeping. The nurse monitors the patient and decides that the patient must be in Stage 4 of the sleep cycle. Which action would cause the nurse to make this decision?
- The patient awakened easily
- The patient's body temperature is decreasing
- The patient wet the bed
- The patient's respiration rate is increased
Explanation: Answer reason: Enuresis can occur during deep NREM sleep due to decreased cortical awareness and reduced ability to awaken in response to a full bladder. In contrast, awakening easily suggests lighter NREM stages, and increased respiration is more consistent with REM or arousal. Decreasing body temperature is a general sleep-related physiologic trend and is not specific enough to identify Stage 4.
A nurse is reviewing the results of a patient’s ketones test. The nurse identifies that there is a presence of ketones in the patient’s blood. The nurse knows that ketones in the blood indicates all of the following except?
- Low-carbohydrate diet
- Poorly controlled diabetes
- Use of narcotics
- Pregnancy
Explanation: Answer reason: A low-carbohydrate diet can trigger nutritional ketosis, and poorly controlled diabetes can cause significant ketone production due to insulin deficiency and increased lipolysis. Pregnancy increases risk of ketosis during fasting or vomiting because of increased metabolic demands and relative insulin resistance. Narcotic use by itself does not directly cause ketone production; any ketosis would more likely be secondary to decreased intake or illness rather than the drug’s primary effect.
Adipose tissue stores:
- Water
- Muscular
- Protein
- Carbohydrate
Explanation: Answer reason: Among the provided choices, “Carbohydrate” is the closest match to the concept of stored energy compared with water, muscle, or protein. Water is mainly stored in intracellular/extracellular fluid compartments, not as an adipose-specific reserve. Protein is not a dedicated storage form and is generally conserved for structural and functional needs, being used for energy mainly in starvation states.
The process in which no external work is performed is called?
- Isobaric
- Isochoric
- Isothermal
- Adiabatic
Explanation: Answer reason: An isochoric process is defined by constant volume, which directly satisfies this condition. In contrast, an isobaric process typically involves a volume change and therefore nonzero work. Isothermal and adiabatic describe heat/temperature behavior but can still involve volume change and thus perform work.
Which muscle is found only in the heart..?
- Smooth
- Skeletal
- Cardiac
- Voluntary
Explanation: Answer reason: The myocardium of the heart is composed of cardiac muscle, which is specialized for continuous, rhythmic, involuntary contraction and electrical conduction via intercalated discs. Smooth muscle is found in hollow organs and blood vessels, and skeletal muscle is attached to bones for voluntary movement, so neither is exclusive to the heart. “Voluntary” is a control description (primarily skeletal) rather than a distinct muscle type and does not uniquely identify heart tissue.
In which of the following organ Gluconeogenesis occurs?
- Liver
- Kidney
- Brain
- Lungs
Explanation: Answer reason: g., lactate, glycerol, alanine) to maintain blood glucose during fasting. The liver is the primary site because hepatocytes have the full enzymatic machinery (including glucose-6-phosphatase) needed to produce and release free glucose into the bloodstream. The kidney can also contribute, especially during prolonged fasting, but it is secondary compared with hepatic production. Brain and lungs lack the necessary pathways for net glucose output and are primarily glucose consumers rather than producers.
Human body mostly contains:
- Blood
- Water
- Bones
- Muscles
Explanation: Answer reason: This predominance reflects water’s role as the primary solvent for biochemical reactions and as the medium for intracellular and extracellular fluid compartments. In contrast, blood volume is only about 7–8% of body weight, and bones and skeletal muscle, while substantial tissues, do not exceed the overall proportion contributed by water. Therefore, the option that best matches what the human body mostly contains is water.
Digestive enzyme in stomach.?
- Trypsin
- Pepsin
- Lipase
- Ptyalin
Explanation: Answer reason: Pepsin is secreted as pepsinogen by chief cells and is activated by gastric acid, allowing it to begin proteolysis in the stomach lumen. Trypsin is a pancreatic protease that acts in the small intestine after activation by enterokinase, not in the stomach. Ptyalin (salivary amylase) works mainly in the mouth and is inactivated by gastric acidity, and lipase is primarily pancreatic (with only minor gastric lipase activity compared with pepsin’s major role).
Which of the following is the effect of blood vessels moving closer to the skin’s surface when they dilate?
- Sweat is released.
- The blood vessels constrict.
- Body temperature is raised.
- Body temperature is lowered.
Explanation: Answer reason: Vasodilation increases blood flow to superficial skin vessels, which increases heat transfer from the core to the environment via radiation and convection. By bringing warm blood closer to the skin surface, the body enhances heat loss and helps reduce elevated core temperature. Sweating is a separate thermoregulatory effector and is not the direct effect of vessel dilation itself. Constriction would do the opposite by conserving heat and tending to raise core temperature.
Think you’re ready for the NCLEX?
Run through a full 150-question exam just like the real thing. You’ll hit the 85-question checkpoint and get a clear report showing where you stand.
