Physiology Practice Test 19
Physiology NCLEX Practice Test
Physiology is a key topic within the NCLEX test plan, located under Nursing Science → Clinical Foundations → Physiology. This section explores body functions to strengthen nursing understanding of assessment and intervention planning. Each test contains 50 questions designed to mirror the difficulty and variety of the real exam.
This is the 19th part of the Physiology series. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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Physiology Practice Test 19
Continuous X-rays depend on
- Voltage
- Target
- Temperature
- Medium
Explanation: Answer reason: Higher voltage increases the energy and penetrating power (quality) of the emitted continuous (bremsstrahlung) X-ray spectrum and also increases output over typical operating ranges. Target material influences characteristic radiation and spectrum shape but the question asks what continuous X-rays depend on most directly. Temperature and medium are not determinants of bremsstrahlung generation in the tube vacuum under standard radiographic physics.
Cation present mostly in plasma is ?
- Potassium
- Calcium
- Sodium
- Magnesium
Explanation: Answer reason: Sodium is maintained at high concentration in plasma by the Na+/K+ ATPase and renal handling, making it the main measurable cation in extracellular fluid. Potassium is the major intracellular cation, so it is not present mostly in plasma despite its critical cardiac effects. Calcium and magnesium are present in plasma but at much lower concentrations than sodium and are partly protein-bound, further reducing their free ionic fraction.
Largest smooth muscles of body
- In femur
- In humerus
- In stomach
- In scapula
Explanation: Answer reason: The stomach has a particularly thick muscularis externa with three layers (including an additional inner oblique layer), giving it substantial smooth muscle mass compared with many other organs. In contrast, femur, humerus, and scapula are bones and do not contain large smooth muscle; the muscles associated with them are skeletal (striated) muscle. Therefore, the stomach is the best match among the provided options for the largest smooth muscle mass.
Blood bank of body is ?
- Liver
- Spleen
- Heart
- Bone Marrow
Explanation: Answer reason: This storage function is why it is commonly termed the body’s “blood bank.” In contrast, bone marrow is primarily the site of hematopoiesis (blood cell production) rather than blood storage. The liver has major metabolic and synthetic roles but is not the principal blood reservoir in standard physiology teaching.
A coin placed at the bottom of a container appears to rise as the container is slowly filled with water. This is due to “?
- Deflection of Light
- Polarisation of Light
- Refraction of Light
- Reflection of Light
Explanation: Answer reason: This bending alters the apparent direction of the rays reaching the eye, making the coin seem closer to the surface than it really is. The effect is strongest when viewing across an interface between media with different refractive indices. Reflection would form an image by bouncing off a surface, but it would not systematically shift the apparent depth in this way.
The mean cardiac output of fetus
- 100 ml/kg/minute
- 225 ml/kg/minute
- 350 ml/kg/minute
- 415 ml/kg/minute
Explanation: Answer reason: Physiologically, fetal circulation maintains elevated heart rates and relies on high flow distribution across the ductus venosus, foramen ovale, and ductus arteriosus to support placental gas exchange. Values around ~400–450 mL/kg/min are commonly cited as the mean fetal combined ventricular output, making this option the best match. Lower options like 100–350 mL/kg/min better approximate postnatal ranges and would underestimate typical fetal flow requirements.
The following are the special senses except ?
- Vision
- Olfaction
- Audition
- Vibration
Explanation: Answer reason: Vibration is classified under general somatic sensation (mechanoreception via skin receptors such as Pacinian corpuscles) rather than a special sense. General senses are distributed throughout the body and do not rely on a dedicated “special sense” organ. Therefore, it is the exception among the listed choices.
The contractile protein in skeleton muscles is?
- Troponin
- Titin
- Tropomyosin
- Actin
Explanation: Answer reason: The thin filament’s primary contractile component is actin, which provides the sites that interact with myosin when calcium regulation permits. Troponin and tropomyosin are regulatory proteins that control access to actin’s binding sites rather than generating force themselves. Titin is a structural/elastic protein that stabilizes the thick filament and contributes to passive tension, not active contraction.
An irresistible urge to void urine occurs when bladder volume increase to ?
- 400 ml
- 600 ml
- 1000 ml
- 800 ml
Explanation: Answer reason: The first desire is commonly felt around ~150–200 mL, while a strong urge typically occurs around ~400–600 mL as detrusor stretch increases afferent signaling. This makes 600 mL the best match for an “irresistible” urge among the choices. Volumes like 800–1000 mL exceed usual functional capacity and are more consistent with overdistension/retention rather than a normal physiologic urge threshold.
What make bones so strong ?
- Calcium & Phosphorus
- Blood & Marrow
- Cartilage
- Silica
Explanation: Answer reason: These minerals provide compressive strength and rigidity, while collagen contributes tensile strength. Blood and marrow are important for hematopoiesis and metabolic activity but do not directly confer the structural hardness of bone tissue. Cartilage is more flexible than bone, and silica is not a primary mineral component responsible for normal human bone strength.
To be absorbed by cells, proteins must be changed to :-
- Amino Acids
- Sucrose
- Glycerol
- Fatty Acids
Explanation: Answer reason: Gastrointestinal proteases break dietary proteins into peptides and then free amino acids, which are transported into enterocytes via specific carrier-mediated transport (often Na+-dependent). These amino acids then enter the portal circulation and are taken up by body cells for protein synthesis and other metabolic functions. The other options represent carbohydrate (sucrose) or lipid components (glycerol, fatty acids) and are not the end-products of protein digestion for absorption.
Which organ called power house of cell?
- Nucleus
- Ribosome
- Mitochondria
- Cytoplasm
Explanation: Answer reason: ” Mitochondria perform the citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation via the electron transport chain on the inner mitochondrial membrane, producing large amounts of ATP. In contrast, ribosomes synthesize proteins and the nucleus primarily stores genetic material and regulates transcription, neither being the main ATP-producing site. Cytoplasm hosts glycolysis, which yields far less ATP than mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation.
The approximate increase in length in the first year of life is ?
- 25 cm
- 35 cm
- 12 cm
- 22 cm
Explanation: Answer reason: Average birth length is about 50 cm and by 12 months it is about 75 cm, reflecting an approximate 25 cm increase. This is a core developmental milestone that helps screen for growth faltering or endocrine/nutritional problems. Larger values like 35 cm overestimate typical first-year length gain, while smaller values (12 cm, 22 cm) underestimate normal growth velocity in infancy.
Fluid overload in a patient may Cause ?
- Angio Edema
- Peripheral Edema
- Cerebral Edema
- Pulmonary Edema
Explanation: Answer reason: The lungs are particularly vulnerable because elevated pulmonary capillary wedge pressure leads to rapid alveolar flooding and impaired gas exchange, producing acute respiratory compromise. This is a classic, high-risk consequence of volume overload seen with aggressive IV fluids, renal failure, or heart failure. Peripheral swelling can occur as well, but it is generally less immediately life-threatening and less characteristic as the critical complication tested here. Angioedema is an allergic/bradykinin-mediated process, not a direct result of excess total body fluid.
The process to attend and react to a stimulus is known as?
- Perception
- Elaboration
- Interpretation
- Sensation
Explanation: Answer reason: It goes beyond raw detection of stimuli by integrating meaning, context, and prior experience to determine how to react. Sensation refers mainly to the initial reception and transmission of a stimulus via sensory receptors and pathways, without the higher-level processing needed to decide on a response. Elaboration and interpretation can be components within perceptual/cognitive processing, but the broader, standard term for attending to and reacting to stimuli is perception.
Normal blood pH is approximately?
- 7.0
- 7.2
- 7.4
- 7.6
Explanation: Answer reason: Normal arterial blood pH is tightly regulated by the bicarbonate buffer system along with respiratory (CO2 excretion) and renal (H+ secretion/HCO3− reabsorption) mechanisms. The physiologic reference range is about 7.35–7.45, so the closest approximate value is 7.4. Values like 7.0 or 7.2 indicate clinically significant acidemia, while 7.6 indicates alkalemia. Because even small deviations affect enzyme activity and cellular function, the body maintains pH near this midpoint.
Skin spinch test is done in case of?
- Infection
- Hypothermia
- Dehydration
- Hypoglycemia
Explanation: Answer reason: In the skin pinch test, a tented skin fold that returns slowly suggests volume depletion due to loss of tissue hydration. This bedside sign is used as a quick screening tool when dehydration is suspected, especially in infants and older adults. The other options do not primarily change skin turgor in a consistent, diagnostically useful way.
The nurse identifies which clinical indicator of parasympathetic dominance in a client under stress?
- Constipation
- Goose Pimples
- Increased GI Secretions
- Excess Epinephrine Secretions
Explanation: Answer reason: Under stress, sympathetic findings are more typical (e.g., piloerection/goose bumps, catecholamine release), but the question asks specifically for a parasympathetic indicator. Constipation reflects decreased GI motility, which aligns more with sympathetic dominance. Excess epinephrine is a sympathetic-adrenal response, not parasympathetic.
Adipose tissue found in new born is?
- Brown adipose tissue
- White adipose tissue
- A and b
- Plasma cell.
Explanation: Answer reason: Brown fat is mitochondria-rich and uses uncoupling protein (UCP1) to generate heat rather than ATP, making it the key adipose type emphasized in neonates. It is concentrated in typical depots (e.g., interscapular, neck, around kidneys) and is physiologically important immediately after birth. White fat mainly serves energy storage and insulation and is not the characteristic thermogenic adaptation being tested here. Plasma cells are immune cells and are unrelated to adipose tissue classification.
Calcium is found in which part of the human body?
- Brain
- Bones
- Muscles
- None of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: Bone remodeling by osteoclasts and osteoblasts allows calcium to be released or deposited in response to hormonal control (PTH, vitamin D, calcitonin). While calcium also plays critical roles in muscle contraction and neuronal signaling, these functions depend on extracellular calcium and are not the primary storage site. Therefore, the best single answer focuses on where calcium is predominantly found in the body.
Enzymes help in?
- Respiration
- Digestion of food
- Immune system
- Reproduction
Explanation: Answer reason: Digestion relies on enzymes (e.g., amylase, pepsin, lipase) to break macromolecules into absorbable units such as sugars, amino acids, and fatty acids. While enzymes are involved broadly in many processes like cellular respiration and reproduction, the most direct and commonly tested role in basic biology is their function in digestive breakdown of food. The immune system uses proteins and enzymes in some pathways, but it is not primarily defined by enzymatic digestion of nutrients.
Maximum blood supply to which organ of the body of total cardiac out put?
- Kidney
- Liver
- Stomach
- Intestine
Explanation: Answer reason: Renal blood flow is high (roughly ~20–25% of cardiac output) despite the kidneys’ relatively small mass, making them the top organ by fraction of total cardiac output at rest. The liver has a large absolute flow but much of it is via the portal circulation and its fraction of total cardiac output is typically lower than the kidneys. Stomach and intestine receive less share than kidneys under resting conditions, with splanchnic flow varying more with digestion and sympathetic tone.
Mitosis is a condition of?
- Cell breakdown
- Cell division without reduction
- Cell death
- Cell division with half chromosomes
Explanation: Answer reason: It is the mechanism for somatic cell growth, tissue repair, and routine cell turnover, so the key feature is no reduction in chromosome count (diploid to diploid). In contrast, reduction to half the chromosomes is characteristic of meiosis, which produces gametes. Cell breakdown and cell death describe catabolic processes (e.g., apoptosis/necrosis) rather than a regulated cell-division cycle.
Most important nerve in parasympathetic nervous system
- Olfactory
- Abducent
- Vagus
- Spinal accessory
Explanation: Answer reason: It provides preganglionic fibers to the heart, lungs, and much of the gastrointestinal tract, mediating effects such as decreased heart rate, bronchoconstriction, and increased gut motility and secretion. The other listed cranial nerves are primarily sensory (I) or somatic motor (VI, XI) and do not provide the major autonomic parasympathetic supply to visceral organs. Therefore, the nerve with the greatest overall parasympathetic influence is cranial nerve X.
Which of the following is not a essential component of reflex Arc ?
- Afferent Neuron
- Spinal Pathway
- Efferent Neuron
- Effector Organ
Explanation: Answer reason: Afferent and efferent neurons and the effector organ are core elements in all reflexes. The CNS “integration center” is essential, but it is not accurately described as a separate “spinal pathway,” because reflex integration may occur via a single spinal synapse, interneurons, or even cranial/brainstem circuits rather than a distinct pathway. Thus this option is the least essential/least correct as a component term compared with the standard reflex-arc components.
Why does new born baby have increased bilirubin -?
- Leukemia
- Hemolysis
- Immature liver
- None of above
Explanation: Answer reason: This immaturity leads to accumulation of unconjugated bilirubin in the first days of life even without disease. While increased red cell turnover can contribute, the classic primary mechanism emphasized for physiologic neonatal hyperbilirubinemia is decreased hepatic conjugation and clearance. Leukemia is not a typical cause of routine neonatal bilirubin elevation.
Most common cause of hypernatremia?
- Sweating
- Carcinoid sundrome
- Primary hypodipsia
- Renal losses
Explanation: Answer reason: Decreased water intake (impaired thirst mechanism or limited access to free water) leads to rising serum sodium because total body water falls relative to solute. In many clinical settings—especially in older adults, debilitated patients, or those with hypothalamic dysfunction—reduced thirst is a dominant driver. By contrast, sweating usually produces hypotonic fluid loss but is often accompanied by increased thirst and water replacement, and renal losses are important but less common than inadequate intake overall.
Drag force increases with:
- Decreasing speed
- Constant speed
- Increasing speed
- Zero speed
Explanation: Answer reason: In common biologic and physical contexts, drag is proportional to velocity (laminar flow) or to the square of velocity (turbulent flow), so higher speed produces higher opposing force. This is why airway resistance and work of breathing can increase at higher flow rates, especially when flow becomes turbulent. Options implying no change or reduced drag with higher speed contradict these basic fluid-dynamics relationships.
Stokes' Law applies to:
- Fast moving objects
- Objects in gases only
- Small spherical objects in viscous fluid
- Rough-surfaced objects
Explanation: Answer reason: The relationship assumes a small, smooth, spherical particle where viscous forces dominate inertial forces, allowing terminal velocity and sedimentation behavior to be predicted. It is not limited to gases and does not apply to high-speed motion where turbulence becomes important. Surface roughness and non-spherical shape violate the core assumptions and make the drag deviate from the Stokes model.
Stokes' law helps in calculating:
- Pressure
- Buoyant force
- Drag force on small sphere
- Acceleration
Explanation: Answer reason: The relationship depends on the fluid’s viscosity, the sphere’s radius, and its velocity, which is why it is used to compute terminal velocity and settling rates. Buoyant force is governed by Archimedes’ principle and depends on displaced fluid volume, not viscosity and velocity. Pressure and acceleration are not what Stokes’ law directly calculates; they may be related in broader fluid dynamics but are not the primary output of the law.
Which of these is an example of a neurotransmitter ?
- Dopamine
- Acetylcholine
- Norepinephrine
- All of the Above
Explanation: Answer reason: Dopamine is a catecholamine neurotransmitter involved in movement, reward, and endocrine regulation within the CNS. Acetylcholine is a key neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction and in the autonomic nervous system, and it also functions widely in the brain. Norepinephrine serves as a neurotransmitter in the CNS and sympathetic nervous system, so each listed substance meets the definition.
Which cell organelle is known as the power house of the cell?
- Ribosome
- Endoplasmic Reticulum
- Mitochondria
- Nucleus
Explanation: Answer reason: This process occurs on the inner mitochondrial membrane, where the electron transport chain creates a proton gradient used to synthesize ATP. Cells with high energy demands have abundant mitochondria, supporting the “powerhouse” description. Ribosomes are responsible for protein synthesis, the endoplasmic reticulum for protein/lipid processing and transport, and the nucleus for genetic control rather than ATP production.
Which enzyme is responsible for the digestion of milk in infents ?
- Pepsin
- Trypsin
- Proteolytic enzymes
- Rennin
Explanation: Answer reason: This enzyme curdles casein into paracasein, forming a clot that allows pepsin and gastric acid to act more effectively on milk protein over time. Pepsin and trypsin are general proteases for protein digestion but are not the specific milk-curdling enzyme classically emphasized in infants. The broad choice of “proteolytic enzymes” is nonspecific and does not identify the distinctive infant milk-digesting factor tested here.
Physiological anaemia in pregnant woman is a result of?
- Poor dietary intake of iron
- Increase erythropoiesis
- Increased blood volume of women
- Increased detoxification demands
Explanation: Answer reason: During pregnancy, plasma volume increases substantially, while erythropoiesis increases to a lesser extent, lowering measured hemoglobin/hematocrit despite adequate oxygen-carrying capacity. Poor dietary iron intake causes true iron-deficiency anemia rather than the normal physiologic pattern. Increased detoxification demands is not a mechanism for the dilutional fall in hemoglobin seen in normal pregnancy.
Carbon dioxide combines with hemoglobin to form:
- Deoxyhemoglobin
- Reduced hemoglobin
- Carbaminohemoglobin
- Carboxyhemoglobin
Explanation: Answer reason: This physiologic CO2–hemoglobin complex is termed carbaminohemoglobin and is distinct from bicarbonate formation (the major CO2 transport form). Carboxyhemoglobin, a common distractor, refers to carbon monoxide binding tightly to heme iron, impairing oxygen delivery. Deoxyhemoglobin/reduced hemoglobin describe hemoglobin without oxygen, not specifically hemoglobin bound to CO2.
As the eardrum is made to vibrate more rapidly, the sound is perceived as ?
- Louder in intensity
- Softer in intensity
- Higher in pitch
- Lower in pitch
Explanation: Answer reason: Making the tympanic membrane vibrate more rapidly increases the frequency of the sound waves transmitted through the ossicles to the cochlea. Higher frequency stimulation activates hair cells tuned to higher frequencies along the basilar membrane, leading to perception of a higher pitch. In contrast, “louder” would require a greater amplitude of vibration rather than faster vibration rate.
Steroid synthesis occur within which of the following structure?
- Peroxisome
- Mitochondrion
- Golgi apparatus
- None of these
Explanation: Answer reason: This first, rate-limiting step makes mitochondria essential for steroid hormone production in adrenal cortex and gonads. While smooth endoplasmic reticulum performs several downstream steroid-modifying reactions, it is not listed as an option here. Peroxisomes and the Golgi apparatus are primarily involved in lipid oxidation/detoxification and protein processing/packaging, respectively, rather than initiating steroid hormone synthesis.
Q-Maximum blood supply to which organ of the body of total cardiac out put according per 100 gm?
- Kidney
- Liver
- Stomach
- Intestine
Explanation: Answer reason: The kidneys receive a very large fraction of cardiac output and have exceptionally high perfusion per gram to support glomerular filtration and tubular transport. Although the liver receives substantial total flow, much of it is portal venous and its perfusion per 100 g is lower than renal tissue. Gastrointestinal organs (stomach, intestine) have variable flow that increases after meals but do not exceed renal perfusion per 100 g at baseline.
Which among the following is an example of an isotonic intravenous solution?
- Dextrose normal saline
- 0.45% NaCl
- 10% Dextrose
- Ringer's Lactate
Explanation: Answer reason: Lactated Ringer’s is formulated to approximate plasma tonicity (with Na+, Cl−, K+, Ca2+, and lactate as a buffer precursor), making it a standard isotonic crystalloid. By contrast, 0.45% NaCl is hypotonic and tends to move water into cells. Hypertonic dextrose solutions such as 10% dextrose raise serum osmolality and draw water out of cells rather than acting isotonic.
White blood cells act:
- As a defence against infection
- As source of energy
- For clotting blood
- As a medium for oxygen transport from lungs to tissues
Explanation: Answer reason: This function directly corresponds to host defense and inflammation in response to infection. Clotting is mainly mediated by platelets and coagulation factors, not leukocytes. Oxygen transport is the role of red blood cells via hemoglobin, and energy source is not a physiologic role of leukocytes in circulation.
When a person's blood pressure drops, the kidneys respond by?
- Producing aldosterone
- Slowing the release of ADH
- Secreting renin
- Increasing urine output
Explanation: Answer reason: Renin release is the kidney’s initiating step, leading to angiotensin II–mediated vasoconstriction and stimulation of aldosterone to increase sodium and water retention. Aldosterone itself is produced by the adrenal cortex rather than the kidneys, so it is not the direct renal response. ADH would be increased (not slowed), and urine output typically decreases to conserve volume.
Which single feature of normal RBC's is most?
- Loss of mitochondria
- Increased flexibility of cell membrane
- Reduction of Hb iron
- Lack of nucleus
Explanation: Answer reason: Loss of the nucleus occurs during erythropoiesis and is used to distinguish mature RBCs from nucleated precursors. While they also lack mitochondria and have deformable membranes, those are supportive adaptations rather than the single most characteristic structural feature. “Reduction of Hb iron” is not a normal feature; normal hemoglobin contains iron in the ferrous (Fe2+) state.
A neuron that transmits impulses from the receptors to the spinal cord is called ?
- Motor Neuron
- Associative Neuron
- Interneuron
- Sensory Neuron
Explanation: Answer reason: g., skin, pain, stretch receptors) toward the central nervous system, entering the spinal cord via dorsal roots. This matches the direction described: receptors to spinal cord. Motor neurons are efferent and transmit impulses from the spinal cord to muscles or glands. Interneurons/associative neurons primarily connect neurons within the CNS rather than transmitting signals from receptors into the cord.
Identify the wound healing phases among the following :-
- Inflammatory Phase
- Maturation Phase
- Proliferative Phase
- All of the Above
Explanation: Answer reason: The inflammatory phase provides hemostasis and immune-cell mediated debridement to prepare the wound bed. The proliferative phase features granulation tissue formation, angiogenesis, fibroblast activity, and re-epithelialization to close the defect. The maturation phase remodels collagen (increasing tensile strength and scar organization) over weeks to months, so each listed phase is a true component of wound healing.
Major nutrients involved in fluid balance are?
- Vitamin B9 and magnesium
- Fats and proteins.
- Chloride and carbohydrates.
- Potassium and sodium.
Explanation: Answer reason: Fluid balance is primarily regulated by electrolytes that determine extracellular and intracellular osmolality and water movement across membranes. Sodium is the dominant extracellular cation and the main determinant of extracellular fluid volume because water follows sodium. Potassium is the dominant intracellular cation and is central to intracellular fluid regulation and cellular water distribution. The other choices list nutrients that do not serve as the primary osmotic drivers of body fluid compartment balance.
Renin - angiotensin aldosterone system is related with?
- Maintaining sodium level
- Maintaining BP
- Maintaining blood volume
- All of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: Angiotensin II increases systemic vascular resistance and supports arterial pressure, while aldosterone increases renal sodium reabsorption, and water follows sodium to expand intravascular volume. These coordinated effects maintain sodium balance, blood volume, and blood pressure as linked outputs of the same regulatory pathway. Options that list only one effect are incomplete because the pathway’s purpose is integrated control of volume and pressure through sodium and water handling.
Fluid flow is considered ideal when?
- It is highly viscous
- It has turbulence
- It has zero viscosity and incompressible nature
- Temperature is high
Explanation: Answer reason: This definition underpins simplified physiologic models of blood flow where viscosity and compressibility are neglected to apply equations like Bernoulli’s. High viscosity increases resistance and energy loss, so it contradicts the “ideal” assumption. Turbulence also violates idealized flow because it introduces chaotic velocity fluctuations and additional energy dissipation. Temperature being high is not a defining criterion for ideal flow; it only indirectly affects viscosity in real fluids.
Stokes' Law is valid only when flow is?
- Turbulent
- Random
- Laminar
- Supersonic
Explanation: Answer reason: That regime corresponds to smooth, orderly streamlines without eddies, which is laminar (creeping) flow. When flow becomes turbulent, vortices and inertial effects dominate and the assumptions behind Stokes’ law no longer hold. Therefore, the law is valid only in laminar flow conditions.
Fats are stored in the human body as?
- Glucose
- Glycogen
- Adipose tissue
- Cholesterol
Explanation: Answer reason: These fat cells collectively form adipose tissue, providing energy reserve, insulation, and cushioning of organs. Glucose is a circulating fuel and is not the storage form of fat. Glycogen is the storage form of carbohydrate in liver and muscle, while cholesterol is a sterol used for membranes and hormone synthesis rather than the main depot form of stored fat.
Yellow color of urine is due to ________?
- Urochrome
- Urea
- Bilirubin
- Uric acid
Explanation: Answer reason: The intensity varies mainly with urine concentration—dehydration concentrates the pigment and deepens the color, while high fluid intake dilutes it. Urea and uric acid are nitrogenous wastes that do not account for the typical yellow pigment. Bilirubin in urine is abnormal and tends to darken urine (tea/cola color) in hepatobiliary disease rather than produce the normal straw-yellow hue.
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