Question 1

Jaundice in newborns is usually due to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Physiologic neonatal jaundice is most commonly due to increased bilirubin production from a relatively high red blood cell mass and shorter RBC lifespan in newborns. This increased bilirubin load, combined with immature hepatic conjugation and clearance, leads to transient unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. Kidney failure, liver cirrhosis, and gallstones are not typical primary causes in otherwise healthy newborns and are far less common explanations for usual neonatal jaundice.
Category reason: This question tests the underlying cause of neonatal jaundice (bilirubin production and metabolism) rather than nursing interventions or prioritization, making it foundational disease-mechanism content best categorized under Pathology.

Question 2

Which STD can lead to cervical cancer in woman?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Persistent infection with high-risk human papillomavirus types (especially 16 and 18) can integrate into cervical epithelial cells and drive dysplasia that may progress to cervical cancer. This carcinogenic process is a direct etiologic link and is the basis for HPV vaccination and cervical screening programs. Other STIs can increase inflammation or risk behaviors, but they are not the primary causal agent of cervical cancer.
Category reason: The question tests the disease causation link between an infectious STD and development of a malignancy, which is a core concept in pathology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 3

Which condition does NOT cause jaundice?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Jaundice results from elevated bilirubin due to increased production (hemolysis), impaired hepatic uptake/conjugation (e.g., hepatitis, cirrhosis), or impaired biliary excretion/obstruction (e.g., gallstones). Gallstones can obstruct the common bile duct and cause conjugated hyperbilirubinemia with jaundice. Hepatitis and cirrhosis damage hepatocytes and disrupt bilirubin metabolism, producing jaundice. Kidney failure does not primarily increase bilirubin; it more typically causes uremic changes rather than scleral icterus.
Category reason: This item tests disease mechanisms and causes of jaundice (bilirubin metabolism and hepatobiliary pathology), which is foundational biomedical knowledge rather than a nursing intervention scenario, fitting Pathology.

Question 4

Which is the main pigment responsible for yellow color in jaundice?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Jaundice results from elevated bilirubin, a yellow breakdown product of heme metabolism, which accumulates in the skin and sclera when production exceeds hepatic conjugation/excretion or when bile flow is obstructed. This pigment’s deposition produces the characteristic yellow discoloration. Carotene can cause yellowing (carotenemia) but typically spares the sclera, and melanin/cholesterol are not the pigments driving jaundice.
Category reason: This question tests the biochemical/pathologic basis of a clinical sign (jaundice) by identifying the responsible pigment, which is core disease mechanism knowledge rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 5

Which of the following is a complication of neonatal jaundice?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Severe unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia in newborns can cross the immature blood-brain barrier and deposit in basal ganglia and brainstem nuclei, causing bilirubin encephalopathy. This can lead to acute neurologic signs (lethargy, hypotonia, poor feeding) and permanent sequelae such as hearing loss, choreoathetoid movements, and gaze abnormalities. This condition is the classic serious complication of neonatal jaundice and is preventable with timely phototherapy or exchange transfusion when indicated.
Category reason: This question tests a disease complication and its mechanism related to neonatal hyperbilirubinemia, which is primarily a pathology concept rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization task.

Question 6

One of the early signs of syphilis is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Primary (early) syphilis classically presents with a chancre: a single, firm, painless ulcer at the inoculation site, commonly on the genitals. This lesion may heal spontaneously, which can delay diagnosis and allow progression to secondary disease. The other options are nonspecific and are not characteristic hallmark findings of early syphilis.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of a hallmark clinical manifestation of an infectious disease (syphilis), which is primarily studied under disease mechanisms and presentations in Pathology.

Question 7

Delusions in clear consciousness are seen in?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Delusions with preserved level of consciousness point to a primary psychotic disorder rather than an acute confusional state. In delirium, delusions (if present) occur in the context of impaired attention and fluctuating consciousness. Dementia typically has progressive cognitive decline, and fixed delusions are less characteristic than in primary psychosis. Neurosis (non-psychotic disorders) does not involve delusions by definition.
Category reason: This is testing recognition of psychiatric disease patterns (presence of delusions with clear consciousness versus confusion), which fits foundational understanding of disease/diagnostic features rather than a nursing intervention scenario, so it is categorized under Pathology.

Question 8

Common cause of mood congruent delusions is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Mood-congruent delusions are delusional beliefs whose content matches the person’s prevailing mood state. In major depressive episodes with psychotic features, typical themes include guilt, worthlessness, nihilism, poverty, or deserved punishment, aligning with depressive affect. Schizophrenia and primary paranoid disorders more often produce mood-incongruent or non–mood-determined delusions.
Category reason: This question tests a psychiatric disease association (mood-congruent psychotic features) rather than nursing interventions or prioritization, placing it under foundational pathology of mental disorders.

Question 9

In hemolytic jaundice there will be increase .................... in serum?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: a- indirect bilirubin Hemolytic jaundice results from increased breakdown of red blood cells, producing excess unconjugated (indirect) bilirubin that overwhelms the liver’s conjugation capacity. Because hepatic conjugation and bile excretion are not the primary defects, conjugated (direct) bilirubin is typically not the predominant fraction in serum. Total bilirubin may rise, but the characteristic and best answer is an increase in the indirect fraction.
Category reason: This question tests the pathophysiology of hemolysis and bilirubin metabolism patterns in jaundice, which is a foundational disease-process concept.

Question 10

It's caused by liver parenchyma damage , the excretion of bile greatly ceased and the concentration of bilirubin in the blood rise :

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: b- hepatogenous jaundice Liver parenchymal (hepatocellular) damage impairs hepatocyte uptake, conjugation, and especially excretion of bilirubin into bile canaliculi, causing reduced bile excretion. This leads to accumulation of bilirubin in the blood (hyperbilirubinemia), producing jaundice. Hemolytic jaundice is primarily from increased bilirubin production, while obstructive jaundice is due to blockage of bile flow in the biliary tree rather than primary hepatocyte injury.
Category reason: This question tests the disease mechanism and classification of jaundice based on underlying tissue pathology (hepatocellular/parenchymal injury vs hemolysis vs obstruction), which is primarily Pathology rather than a nursing intervention decision.

Question 11

A patient with ameloblastoma of the jaw can best be treated by: __________?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ameloblastoma is a benign but locally aggressive odontogenic tumor with a high recurrence rate if treated conservatively. Definitive management is wide surgical excision/resection with adequate margins rather than simple enucleation or curettage. Radiotherapy is generally ineffective for this tumor and is not considered first-line. More extensive surgical removal lowers recurrence and provides better long-term control.
Category reason: This question tests the definitive treatment approach for a specific jaw tumor (ameloblastoma), which is primarily a disease-process and management concept within pathology rather than a nursing care priority scenario.

Question 12

After entering radiolucent lesion in a 30 years old man hollow cavity without epithelial lining is seen, the most probable diagnosis is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: C. Hemorrhagic bone cyst A hollow bony cavity without an epithelial lining is characteristic of a pseudocyst, most classically a simple/traumatic bone cyst (also called hemorrhagic bone cyst). These lesions are often discovered when a radiolucency is explored surgically and the cavity may be empty or contain fluid/blood. In contrast, ameloblastoma is a true odontogenic tumor with epithelial components, and aneurysmal bone cyst typically contains blood-filled spaces rather than an empty cavity. A static bone cavity represents a developmental bone depression (usually with salivary tissue) rather than an intraosseous hollow pseudocyst found on exploration.
Category reason: This item tests recognition of a lesion based on its pathologic hallmark (a cyst-like cavity lacking epithelial lining), which is a disease classification concept within Pathology rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 13

Compound odontoma shows: ________?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: B. Numerous tooth like structure with denticles commonly found in maxillary lateral incisors Compound odontoma is a benign odontogenic lesion characterized by multiple small, tooth-like structures (denticles) that show organized enamel/dentin/cementum formation. It most commonly occurs in the anterior maxilla, often in association with the incisor-canine region and can impede eruption of adjacent teeth. In contrast, complex odontoma presents as an irregular, disorganized calcified mass without tooth-like morphology, matching the distractors.
Category reason: This item tests recognition of an odontogenic tumor’s morphologic presentation (compound vs complex odontoma), which is a disease classification concept within pathology rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 14

Destructively invasive locally malignant with rare metastasis, the lesion is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It is a benign odontogenic tumor that is classically locally aggressive and infiltrative, causing destructive bony expansion and recurrence if not widely excised. Metastasis is uncommon, so its biologic behavior is often described as locally malignant despite benign histology. Fibroma and papilloma are typically noninvasive benign lesions without this pattern of destructive local invasion.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of the biologic behavior of specific tumors (local invasiveness and metastatic potential), which is a core concept in general pathology.

Question 15

Lesions associated with vital tooth?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: B. cementoma Lesions associated with a vital (pulpally alive) tooth are typically benign periapical fibro-osseous conditions rather than infections arising from pulpal necrosis. Cementoma (periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia) commonly occurs at the apices of teeth that test vital and may present as a mixed radiolucent–radiopaque periapical change. In contrast, a periapical abscess is usually related to a nonvital tooth due to pulpal infection and necrosis. Condensing osteitis is more often linked to chronic low-grade pulpal inflammation and is classically associated with an inflamed/necrotic pulp rather than a definitively vital pulp.
Category reason: This question tests identification of an odontogenic lesion in relation to pulp vitality, which is a disease-process classification topic within pathology rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 16

Clear cells are commonly seen in which of the following lesions?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Mucoepidermoid carcinoma classically contains a mixture of mucous, intermediate, and squamoid (epidermoid) cells, and it may show clear cell change due to intracellular mucin/glycogen. This clear cell component is a recognized histopathologic feature and is commonly tested in salivary gland tumor pathology. In contrast, Warthin tumor is characterized by oncocytic epithelium with lymphoid stroma, pleomorphic adenoma is defined by mixed epithelial/myoepithelial elements in a chondromyxoid stroma, and adenomatoid odontogenic tumor is an odontogenic epithelial tumor with duct-like structures and calcifications rather than prominent clear cells.
Category reason: This question tests histopathologic features used to identify and differentiate tumors/lesions, which is a core concept in Pathology rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 17

Multiple periapical radiolucencies are seen in: ____?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A. Jawv cyst basal cell Nevus Syndrome Multiple periapical radiolucencies in the jaws classically suggest multiple odontogenic cysts/tumors occurring as part of a syndrome rather than an isolated lesion. Nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome (Gorlin-Goltz syndrome) is strongly associated with multiple jaw cysts that can present as multiple radiolucent areas on dental radiographs. By contrast, a single odontogenic keratocyst is usually solitary (even though it can be multiple mainly when syndromic), cherubism tends to cause bilateral multilocular radiolucencies rather than periapical lesions, and thyroid disorders are not a typical cause of multiple periapical radiolucencies.
Category reason: This is a question about disease-associated radiographic/pathologic findings in the jaws (dental pathology) rather than nursing interventions or prioritization, so it best fits Pathology under NursingScience.

Question 18

A 36 year old man with an asymptomatic swelling in the body of the mandible with radiographic features of radiolucency with radiopaque flecks is suffering from.?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A jaw lesion that is classically a radiolucency containing scattered radiopaque flecks (“driven snow” calcifications) is characteristic of this odontogenic tumor. It commonly presents as a slow-growing, often painless mandibular swelling in adults. Odontogenic keratocyst and ameloblastoma are typically radiolucent without internal calcified flecks, making them less consistent with the described imaging pattern.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of a characteristic radiographic-pathologic pattern of an odontogenic tumor, which is primarily disease identification and classification within pathology rather than nursing care decisions.

Question 19

Pindborg tumor arises from: ________?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: B. Stratum intermedium Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor (Pindborg tumor) is an odontogenic epithelial neoplasm classically linked to the stratum intermedium of the enamel organ. Its epithelial origin aligns with characteristic histologic findings such as sheets of polygonal cells and amyloid-like material with calcifications. Dental lamina is associated with other odontogenic tumors (e.g., ameloblastoma), making it less specific here. Therefore, the most accepted origin is the stratum intermedium.
Category reason: This item tests the tissue of origin of an odontogenic tumor, which is a foundational disease-classification concept within pathology rather than a nursing intervention or safety decision.

Question 20

A six year old child patient has blue-dome shaped swelling in posterior mandibular region, what will be the treatment plan?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A. Reassure the patient without any treatment This presentation is most consistent with an eruption cyst/eruption hematoma over an erupting tooth in a child, which commonly appears as a bluish, dome-shaped swelling on the alveolar mucosa. These lesions are benign, self-limiting, and typically resolve spontaneously as the tooth erupts. Intervention is usually unnecessary unless there is significant pain, infection, or failure of eruption, in which case simple exposure/drainage may be considered. Therefore, observation and reassurance is the appropriate plan.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of an oral lesion’s typical presentation and the appropriate management based on its natural course, which is primarily disease/lesion knowledge rather than nursing care prioritization.

Question 21

The Pathogenesis of Periapical Cyst is ____________?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A periapical (radicular) cyst develops from stimulation of epithelial rests of Malassez by chronic periapical inflammation, leading to epithelial proliferation and cyst formation. Hydrostatic pressure and inflammatory mediators contribute to enlargement and associated bone resorption, but they are not the initiating pathogenic event. Therefore the key pathogenesis is epithelial proliferation triggered by persistent inflammation from a nonvital tooth.
Category reason: This question tests the mechanism of disease development (how a periapical cyst forms), which is a core concept in Pathology rather than a nursing intervention or safety decision.

Question 22

Cyst arising from dental lamina: ________?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dental lamina remnants (rests of Serres) can give rise to developmental odontogenic cysts associated with tooth eruption. An eruption cyst is the soft-tissue counterpart of a dentigerous cyst, forming in the gingival tissue over an erupting tooth. Radicular cysts arise from epithelial rests of Malassez secondary to pulpal necrosis, not dental lamina. Glandular odontogenic cyst is a rare developmental odontogenic cyst but is not classically described as arising from dental lamina remnants in standard exam patterns.
Category reason: This is a foundational question about the developmental origin of odontogenic cysts, which is tested under disease mechanisms and lesion classification in pathology.

Question 23

Standard treatment of ameloblastoma:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ameloblastoma is a benign but locally aggressive odontogenic tumor with a significant tendency to infiltrate surrounding cancellous bone and recur if treated conservatively. Definitive management for conventional (solid/multicystic) lesions is wide surgical excision with a margin of uninvolved bone to reduce recurrence risk. Enucleation (with or without cauterization) is associated with higher recurrence in typical ameloblastoma because microscopic tumor nests can remain beyond the visible lesion. A margin-based segmental resection is therefore preferred as the standard approach in most cases.
Category reason: This question tests standard management of a specific tumor entity (ameloblastoma) and its recurrence behavior, which is primarily addressed in pathology and disease treatment principles rather than nursing care prioritization.

Question 24

The most aggressive and destructive cyst is: ________?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dentigerous lesions are odontogenic and can expand by fluid accumulation around the crown of an unerupted tooth, producing significant bony expansion and local destruction. They may displace adjacent teeth and, when large, can cause notable jaw weakening and facial asymmetry. Compared with the other listed developmental or inflammatory cysts, this entity is typically regarded as having a greater tendency for expansive behavior and associated tissue destruction.
Category reason: This item tests comparative behavior (aggressiveness/destructiveness) of odontogenic cyst types, which is a disease-process classification question rather than a nursing intervention/priority task, fitting Pathology.

Question 25

Facial nerve paralysis is common with: ________?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Facial nerve palsy in a parotid-region mass strongly suggests malignant invasion or perineural spread rather than a benign salivary gland tumor. Pleomorphic adenoma and Warthin’s tumor are typically benign and usually do not cause facial nerve dysfunction unless very large or complicated. Squamous/epidermoid carcinoma can infiltrate surrounding tissues and the facial nerve, making paralysis a common concerning sign of malignancy.
Category reason: This item tests recognition of a clinical sign (facial nerve paralysis) as an indicator of malignant pathology in salivary gland tumors, which is primarily disease-process knowledge rather than nursing intervention/priority setting.

Question 26

COC is now called as: ________?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: COC refers to calcifying odontogenic cyst, an odontogenic lesion whose modern WHO-related terminology recognizes the neoplastic counterpart as dentinogenic ghost cell tumor. This name reflects the characteristic presence of ghost cells and associated dentinoid material within an odontogenic tumor spectrum. The other options describe different entities (e.g., keratocystic odontogenic tumor is related to odontogenic keratocyst) and therefore do not match the updated term for COC.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of disease/lesion nomenclature and classification changes in odontogenic pathology, which falls under Pathology rather than patient-care decision making.

Question 27

Multiple bilateral dentigerous cysts are seen in: ________?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: D. Gorlin Goltz syndrome This syndrome (nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome) is classically associated with multiple odontogenic jaw cysts that can present bilaterally and recur. The cysts are often diagnosed on dental imaging and may be accompanied by other developmental anomalies (e.g., skeletal findings) due to an underlying genetic tumor predisposition. The other listed syndromes are not the typical association for multiple bilateral dentigerous-type jaw cysts.
Category reason: This is a disease-association question about which syndrome is linked to a specific cystic pathology of the jaws, which is primarily tested under Pathology rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 28

Tonsillitis is primarily caused by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Most cases of acute tonsillitis are due to viral upper respiratory infections (e.g., adenovirus, rhinovirus, influenza, EBV), which cause inflammation of the tonsillar tissue. Bacterial tonsillitis (classically group A streptococcus) is an important subset because it changes management, but it is less common overall than viral causes. Parasites and fungi are uncommon primary causes of tonsillitis in typical community settings and are usually associated with specific immunocompromised states or atypical presentations.
Category reason: This question tests the predominant infectious etiology of a common condition (cause of tonsillar inflammation) rather than nursing interventions, making it a foundational disease/etiology concept within Pathology.

Question 29

Human Papillomavirus (HPV) is primarily associated with which type of cancer in humans?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: B. Cervical cancer High-risk HPV types (especially 16 and 18) can integrate into host cervical epithelial cells and express E6/E7 oncoproteins that inactivate tumor suppressors p53 and Rb, driving dysplasia and malignant transformation. Persistent infection is the key risk factor that precedes cervical intraepithelial neoplasia and can progress to invasive carcinoma. While HPV is also linked to some anogenital and oropharyngeal cancers, the strongest primary association classically tested is cervical cancer.
Category reason: This item tests disease causation/oncogenic viral association (HPV leading to malignancy), which is foundational pathology rather than a nursing intervention or clinical prioritization scenario.

Question 30

What is the medical term for a localized collection of puc in the skin?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: An abscess is a localized collection of pus within tissues, commonly the skin, resulting from infection and associated inflammation. A papule is a small solid elevated lesion without pus, and a cyst is a closed sac that may contain various materials but is not specifically defined by purulent collection. A boil (furuncle) is a type of skin abscess involving a hair follicle, so the broader medical term for a localized pus collection is an abscess.
Category reason: This is testing recognition of a disease/lesion definition (localized pus collection) rather than a nursing intervention or clinical decision, which places it under Pathology in NursingScience.

Question 31

Fever Chills & Headache are common symptoms of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The classic clinical presentation includes episodic fever with chills/rigors and systemic symptoms such as headache due to cyclic parasitemia and inflammatory cytokine release. Conjunctivitis typically causes eye redness/irritation rather than prominent fever with chills. Hypertension and diabetes are usually chronic conditions without an acute febrile illness pattern unless complicated by infection.
Category reason: This is testing recognition of a disease based on hallmark signs and symptoms, which is primarily disease pathology rather than nursing interventions or care prioritization.

Question 32

A patient presents with severe throbbing tooth pain, fever, and facial swelling. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Severe throbbing tooth pain with fever and facial swelling is most consistent with an odontogenic bacterial infection that has formed a localized collection of pus. Systemic symptoms (fever) and soft-tissue swelling point toward an invasive infectious process rather than isolated gum inflammation or fungal overgrowth. Temporomandibular joint disorder typically causes jaw pain and dysfunction without fever or facial swelling from infection. Gingivitis causes gum bleeding and tenderness but usually does not produce marked facial swelling and febrile illness.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of a disease condition based on signs and symptoms (infectious odontogenic process), which is primarily a pathology-focused diagnostic concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 33

Which clinical sign is a common characteristic for peritonitis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Peritoneal inflammation causes marked parietal peritoneum irritation, producing pain that worsens with sudden release of pressure (rebound). Peritonitis typically presents with guarding, rigidity, and decreased (not hyperactive) bowel sounds due to ileus. A pulsatile abdominal mass suggests an abdominal aortic aneurysm, and flank ecchymosis (Grey Turner sign) is more associated with retroperitoneal bleeding such as severe pancreatitis or trauma.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of a hallmark physical exam finding associated with an inflammatory abdominal condition (peritonitis), which is primarily disease/pathophysiology knowledge within Pathology.

Question 34

Which of the following clients is at a higher risk of developing oral health problems?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Diabetes increases susceptibility to periodontal disease and oral infections due to impaired immunity and microvascular changes, and hyperglycemia can worsen gingival inflammation. Chemotherapy commonly causes oral mucositis, xerostomia, and immunosuppression, raising the risk of ulceration and opportunistic infections. Pregnancy can be associated with gingival changes, but the combined risks and severity from diabetes and chemotherapy make those clients higher-risk overall.
Category reason: This item tests underlying disease/treatment-related mechanisms (how diabetes and chemotherapy predispose to oral complications), which is primarily foundational pathology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 35

Which was not a complication of enteric fever?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Enteric (typhoid) fever commonly causes intestinal ulceration with bleeding and possible perforation, and it can also lead to paralytic ileus/obstruction. Reactive arthritis can occur as a post-infectious complication with Salmonella infections. Adenocarcinoma is a malignancy and is not a recognized complication of enteric fever.
Category reason: This item tests disease complications and outcomes of an infectious condition, which is primarily foundational pathology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 36

Burn patient present in scar which of the following cancer can develop from burn scar.?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Chronic burn scars can undergo malignant transformation into squamous cell carcinoma (Marjolin ulcer), typically after years of persistent inflammation and tissue remodeling. This malignancy is classically associated with nonhealing ulcers or changes within long-standing scars. Basal cell carcinoma is more linked to sun-exposed skin, and melanoma arises from melanocytes rather than scar epithelium. Adenocarcinoma is not the typical cancer arising from burn scars.
Category reason: This item tests knowledge of malignant transformation in chronic scars (Marjolin ulcer) and cancer type, which is core Pathology rather than nursing interventions or prioritization.

Question 37

Key difference between Social Anxiety Disorder & GAD?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A) Social Anxiety affects performance situations Social anxiety disorder is characterized by marked fear of social or performance situations in which the person may be scrutinized and embarrassed, leading to avoidance or intense distress in those settings. In contrast, generalized anxiety disorder involves excessive, pervasive worry about multiple domains (e.g., work, health, finances) occurring more days than not and is not limited to performance or social evaluation contexts. The other choices are incorrect because GAD is not confined to school, social anxiety typically does impair social functioning, and GAD can be associated with avoidance behaviors but it is not defined by “never” including social avoidance.
Category reason: This item tests diagnostic differentiation between psychiatric disorders (SAD vs GAD), which is core disease classification and clinical features rather than nursing interventions, fitting Pathology.

Question 38

Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) is commonly seen in people of which age group?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: ALL is the most common leukemia of childhood, with peak incidence in early childhood (around 2–5 years) and overall predominance through school-age years. In contrast, AML and CLL are more typical in older age groups, and adult leukemias have different epidemiologic patterns. Therefore, the pediatric age range best fits the typical demographic for ALL.
Category reason: This question tests epidemiology of a hematologic malignancy (age distribution of acute lymphocytic leukemia), which is a foundational disease-pattern concept within Pathology rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 39

Cobblestone appearance of mucosa is the characteristic feature of which of the following disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This appearance results from transmural, patchy inflammation with deep linear ulcerations separated by edematous mucosa, creating the classic “cobblestoning.” Crohn’s can involve any part of the GI tract and commonly shows skip lesions, fissures, and granulomatous inflammation. Ulcerative colitis is typically continuous, limited to the colon, and features superficial mucosal ulceration rather than cobblestoning.
Category reason: The question tests recognition of a characteristic gross endoscopic/pathologic finding and its associated disease, which is foundational disease identification rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization task.

Question 40

A 45-year-old male with HIV presents with complaints of painless, reddish-purple lesions on his skin. The lesions initially appeared on his legs and have since spread to involve the trunk and oral mucosa. On physical examination, multiple raised and violaceous plaques and nodules are noted. There are also lesions in the oral cavity, presenting as dark patches on the palate. Biopsy of the skin lesion reveals spindle cells and slit-like spaces filled with RBCs. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In an immunocompromised patient with HIV, painless violaceous plaques/nodules involving skin and oral mucosa are classic for HHV-8–associated vascular neoplasm. The biopsy description of spindle cells with slit-like vascular spaces containing extravasated RBCs is characteristic histology. Alternative options do not match: erythema nodosum causes tender subcutaneous nodules, Burkitt’s is a B-cell lymphoma with jaw/abdominal masses, and lipodystrophy is fat redistribution rather than violaceous mucocutaneous lesions.
Category reason: This is a diagnosis question based on characteristic clinical presentation and histopathology findings of a disease process, which is best categorized under Pathology rather than nursing interventions or care management.

Question 41

What is a common treatment for leukemia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Leukemia is a malignancy of blood-forming tissues in which abnormal leukocytes proliferate, so treatment commonly involves systemic anti-cancer drugs to reduce or eradicate the malignant cell population. Chemotherapy is a core modality across many leukemia types and may be used alone or in combination with targeted therapy and/or hematopoietic stem cell transplant. The other options are not primary treatments for leukemia, though antibiotics may be used supportively to treat infections during neutropenia.
Category reason: This item tests foundational knowledge of a disease (leukemia) and its standard medical treatment modality rather than nursing actions or prioritization, aligning best with Pathology.

Question 42

Shock due to spinal cord injury is known as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Spinal cord injury can disrupt sympathetic outflow, causing loss of vascular tone (vasodilation) and relative hypovolemia, leading to hypotension. It is often accompanied by bradycardia due to unopposed vagal tone, which helps distinguish it from other shock types. Anaphylactic shock is due to systemic allergic mediator release, cardiogenic shock is pump failure, and septic shock is due to infection-driven vasodilation and capillary leak.
Category reason: This question tests the etiologic classification of shock in relation to spinal cord injury, which is core disease mechanism content rather than a nursing action or prioritization decision; therefore it fits Pathology.

Question 43

Paralysis is a Symptoms of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Poliovirus can invade the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord, causing acute flaccid paralysis with weakness and decreased reflexes. This paralysis can be asymmetric and may progress rapidly, sometimes affecting respiratory muscles. In contrast, typhoid, malaria, and dengue more typically cause systemic febrile illness and do not classically present with primary paralytic disease.
Category reason: This question tests disease manifestations and clinical features of infectious diseases, which is primarily a pathology concept rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization scenario.

Question 44

Which of the following conditions is associated with “nutmeg liver” on gross pathology?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Nutmeg liver refers to chronic passive congestion of the liver with centrilobular (zone 3) congestion/hemorrhagic necrosis alternating with paler periportal areas, producing a mottled appearance. This pattern is classically caused by hepatic venous outflow obstruction or severe right-sided heart failure. Budd–Chiari syndrome (hepatic vein thrombosis/obstruction) is a key condition producing this congestive hepatopathy grossly. The other choices have different characteristic liver findings (e.g., copper accumulation, iron overload, or PAS-positive globules) rather than the congestive “nutmeg” pattern.
Category reason: This is a gross pathology association question linking a named morphologic pattern (“nutmeg liver”) to an underlying disease mechanism (hepatic venous outflow obstruction), which is primarily Pathology rather than nursing management.

Question 45

Continued exposure to vinylchloride (VC) may cause cancer to the?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Vinyl chloride is a well-established occupational carcinogen with a strong association with hepatic malignancy, particularly angiosarcoma of the liver. The liver is the primary site of metabolism for many xenobiotics, increasing susceptibility to toxic metabolites and DNA damage. Epidemiologic and toxicologic data consistently link chronic exposure to vinyl chloride with liver cancer risk compared with other listed organs.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of an environmental/chemical carcinogen’s target organ and associated malignancy, which is a disease mechanism concept within Pathology rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 46

Malaria is a disease that affected the?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Malaria (Plasmodium infection) primarily involves red blood cells and can cause hemolysis and microvascular obstruction. Severe malaria may lead to acute kidney injury (“malarial nephropathy”) due to hemoglobinuria, dehydration, shock, and parasite-mediated microcirculatory impairment. While malaria can also cause cerebral and pulmonary complications, kidney involvement is a classic major organ complication and is commonly tested as a severe manifestation.
Category reason: This item asks about organ involvement/complications of an infectious disease, which is foundational disease mechanism and complication knowledge rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision, fitting Pathology.

Question 47

Inflammation of Kidney Caused by Streptococci Called as-

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Streptococcal infection can trigger immune-mediated inflammation of the renal glomeruli, classically described as post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, which falls under the broader term nephritis (kidney inflammation). Hematuria is a symptom/sign rather than a disease name for inflammation. Pyelonephritis typically refers to bacterial infection/inflammation of the renal pelvis and parenchyma, most commonly due to ascending gram-negative organisms like E. coli rather than being specifically streptococcal. Therefore, the best general term among the options is nephritis.
Category reason: This item tests disease terminology and inflammatory pathology of the kidney (e.g., post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis), which is foundational biomedical knowledge rather than a nursing intervention decision.

Question 48

A nurse is assessing a 14-month-old child in the pediatric clinic. The child weighs 6.8 kg (15 lbs), appears extremely thin with visible ribs, has loose skin folds, and a "wizened old person" appearance. The mother reports the child has been irritable and has not been gaining weight. Which assessment finding would the nurse expect to find that is MOST consistent with marasmus?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: C) Thin arms and legs with muscle wasting and no subcutaneous fat Marasmus is severe calorie (energy) deficiency leading to marked loss of subcutaneous fat and muscle mass, producing an emaciated appearance with thin extremities. In contrast, edema and abdominal distension are more characteristic of kwashiorkor due to protein deficiency with hypoalbuminemia. Fatty liver, hepatomegaly, and jaundice are also classically associated with kwashiorkor rather than marasmus. The described “wizened” look and visible ribs align with profound wasting.
Category reason: The question tests recognition of clinical features distinguishing types of protein-energy malnutrition (marasmus vs kwashiorkor), which is primarily disease/condition characterization rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization task, fitting Pathology.

Question 49

A 65-year-old male with a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) presents with complaints of urinary frequency, weak stream, and nocturia. A digital rectal exam reveals an enlarged prostate. His serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level is elevated at 12 ng/mL (normal < 4 ng/mL). A biopsy confirms prostate cancer. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient with localized prostate cancer?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In a relatively healthy 65-year-old with confirmed localized prostate cancer, definitive local therapy is typically preferred with curative intent. Surgical removal of the prostate is a standard curative option for localized disease and is appropriate given the patient’s age and presumed life expectancy. Watchful waiting is generally reserved for limited life expectancy or very low-risk disease, while LHRH agonists are mainly for metastatic/advanced disease or as adjuncts. Radiation can also be curative, but among the listed choices, surgery is the most classically appropriate single best treatment for localized cancer in this scenario.
Category reason: The question tests foundational disease-management knowledge for localized prostate cancer (treatment selection based on cancer stage), which is primarily biomedical/pathology-focused rather than nursing care prioritization or safety.

Question 50

Carcinoid tumour develops from:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Carcinoid tumors are well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumors arising from enterochromaffin/Kulchitsky neuroendocrine cells within mucosa, most commonly in the GI tract and bronchopulmonary system. These cells can produce bioactive amines and peptides (e.g., serotonin), explaining carcinoid syndrome when hepatic metastases allow systemic release. Hematopoietic cells give rise to leukemias/lymphomas, neuroglial cells to glial tumors, and chromaffin cells are associated with pheochromocytoma/paraganglioma.
Category reason: This is a foundational pathology question testing the cellular origin (histogenesis) of a tumor type, which is biomedical knowledge rather than a nursing care decision.

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