Question 1

Which of the following is a primary risk factor for developing Reye's syndrome in children?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Reye's syndrome is classically associated with giving salicylates (aspirin) to children during or after a viral infection (especially influenza or varicella). This exposure can precipitate acute encephalopathy with hepatic dysfunction and hyperammonemia. The other options may affect general health but are not recognized primary risk factors for Reye's syndrome.
Category reason: The question tests etiologic risk factors and disease association (aspirin use with viral illness) for Reye's syndrome, which is primarily a pathology concept rather than a nursing action/priority scenario.

Question 2

Metasis means:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Metastasis refers to the spread of malignant cells from a primary tumor to distant sites, typically via lymphatic or hematogenous routes, forming secondary tumors. Rapid reproduction describes proliferation/mitosis, not metastasis. “Regeneration” is not a standard cancer biology term for tumor behavior, and therefore “all of the above” is incorrect.
Category reason: The item tests a core definition in cancer biology—metastasis—focused on disease mechanisms rather than a nursing intervention, prioritization, or safety action, which places it under Pathology.

Question 3

What is the term for programmed cell death?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Programmed cell death is apoptosis, a regulated, energy-dependent process that removes cells without triggering significant inflammation. It features cell shrinkage, chromatin condensation, and formation of apoptotic bodies that are phagocytosed. Necrosis is unregulated cell death due to injury and is associated with cell swelling and inflammation. Autophagy is primarily a cellular recycling process, and pyknosis is a nuclear change seen in cell death rather than the overall programmed process.
Category reason: The question tests a foundational concept about mechanisms of cell injury and death (apoptosis vs necrosis), which is core Pathology knowledge rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 4

Cancer is a?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cancer is characterized by uncontrolled, abnormal cell growth with the ability to invade surrounding tissues and potentially metastasize, which defines a neoplasm. Therefore, cancer is classified as a neoplastic disease. While infections or nutritional deficiencies can contribute to risk for certain cancers, cancer itself is not primarily an infectious, deficiency, or nutritional disease category. The correct classification among the options is neoplastic disease.
Category reason: The question tests the definition/classification of cancer as a disease process (neoplasia), which is foundational disease mechanism content in Pathology rather than a nursing intervention or care decision.

Question 5

Headache is a symptom of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Headache is a common symptom in migraine due to neurovascular activation and trigeminovascular pain pathways. It can also occur with fever as part of systemic inflammatory illness and cytokine-mediated pain. Hypertension may be associated with headache, particularly in severe elevations (e.g., hypertensive crisis), though most chronic hypertension is asymptomatic; therefore the best single choice encompassing all listed conditions is "All of these.
Category reason: The item tests recognition of headache as a symptom across different medical conditions, which is a foundational disease/symptom association rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario, fitting Pathology.

Question 6

Which cancer is caused by UV radiation?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ultraviolet (UVA/UVB) radiation causes direct and indirect DNA damage in skin cells (e.g., pyrimidine dimers and oxidative injury), increasing mutations in tumor-suppressor genes such as p53. This leads to skin cancers including basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and melanoma. The other listed cancers have primary etiologies not driven by UV exposure (e.g., HPV for cervical cancer, H. pylori/diet for many gastric cancers).
Category reason: The item tests etiologic association between an environmental carcinogen (UV radiation) and a specific malignancy, which is foundational disease mechanism knowledge rather than nursing care decision-making; this best fits Pathology.

Question 7

The cancer associated with smoking is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cigarette smoking is the strongest and most established risk factor for lung cancer, particularly small cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma. Tobacco smoke contains carcinogens (e.g., polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons, nitrosamines) that cause DNA damage and mutations leading to malignant transformation of bronchial epithelium. While smoking can increase risk for several other cancers, among the listed options lung cancer is the classic and most directly associated malignancy.
Category reason: The question tests knowledge of disease risk factors/etiology (which cancers are linked to smoking), a foundational pathology concept rather than a nursing intervention or clinical decision-making scenario.

Question 8

All of the following side effects are expected in a patient with oral cancer who is receiving radiation therapy: EXCEPT?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Radiation therapy to the head and neck commonly causes oral mucositis due to damage to rapidly dividing mucosal cells, xerostomia from salivary gland injury, and trismus from fibrosis of muscles of mastication and temporomandibular structures. Oral fluorosis, however, is a developmental enamel defect caused by excessive fluoride exposure during tooth formation, not a radiation-related toxicity. Therefore, oral fluorosis is the exception.
Category reason: The question tests knowledge of expected adverse tissue effects of radiation therapy in oral cancer, which is a disease/treatment effect concept within Pathology rather than a nursing-priority or care-management decision.

Question 9

Which of the following condition is an example of acute organic mental disorder?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: An acute organic mental disorder refers to an acute, usually reversible disturbance in cognition and consciousness due to an underlying medical cause (e.g., infection, metabolic derangement, drug intoxication/withdrawal). Delirium classically presents with acute onset, fluctuating course, inattention, and altered level of awareness, making it the prototypical acute organic brain syndrome. Schizophrenia, manic psychosis, and obsessive-compulsive disorder are primarily functional psychiatric disorders rather than acute organic syndromes.
Category reason: The item tests classification/definition of a psychiatric syndrome (acute organic vs functional) rather than nursing actions or prioritization, fitting foundational disease concepts under Pathology.

Question 10

What is the most common type of cancer in males?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Among men, prostate cancer is the most commonly diagnosed internal cancer in standard epidemiology teaching. Lung cancer is typically the leading cause of cancer death in men, but not the most common diagnosis. Colon cancer is also common but occurs less frequently than prostate cancer. Although skin cancers (especially non-melanoma) are very common overall, many exam contexts specify internal cancers, for which prostate cancer is the correct choice here.
Category reason: The question tests general disease epidemiology (which cancer is most common in males), a foundational biomedical/pathology concept rather than a nursing intervention or clinical decision-making scenario.

Question 11

Lund - Browder Chart used for ;???

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The Lund and Browder chart is used to estimate total body surface area (TBSA) affected by burns with age-adjusted body proportions, making it more accurate than the rule of nines in children. TBSA calculation helps determine burn severity, guides fluid resuscitation (e.g., Parkland formula), and informs decisions about referral to a burn center. Therefore, it is specifically used for burns rather than head injury, acute abdomen, or bone injury.
Category reason: This item tests foundational clinical knowledge about a standard burn-assessment tool (TBSA estimation) rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision, fitting biomedical disease/injury assessment content.

Question 12

A patient with liver cirrhosis develops ascites and edema. Which mechanism explains this finding?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In liver cirrhosis, impaired hepatic synthesis lowers serum albumin. Albumin is the main contributor to plasma oncotic (colloid osmotic) pressure, so reduced albumin decreases intravascular oncotic pressure and promotes fluid movement into interstitial tissues and the peritoneal cavity, causing edema and ascites. While neurohormonal sodium/water retention (e.g., RAAS/ADH) can contribute, the option stating decreased albumin and low oncotic pressure best explains the edema/ascites mechanism here; the other choices do not account for the primary fluid shift.
Category reason: The question tests the pathophysiologic mechanism of ascites/edema formation in cirrhosis (protein synthesis failure and altered Starling forces), which is foundational disease-process knowledge rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 13

A patient with congestive heart failure presents with peripheral edema. What is the primary pathophysiological mechanism?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In congestive heart failure, impaired cardiac pumping causes venous congestion, which raises capillary hydrostatic pressure (especially on the venous end). The increased hydrostatic pressure drives fluid out of the intravascular space into the interstitial tissues, producing peripheral edema. The other mechanisms are more typical of hypoalbuminemia (decreased plasma proteins/oncotic pressure) or inflammation (increased vascular permeability), not primary CHF-related edema.
Category reason: The question tests the underlying mechanism of edema formation in heart failure (fluid shifts due to altered Starling forces), which is foundational disease mechanism content and best classified under Pathology rather than nursing interventions.

Question 14

Appendicitis is most common in which age group?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Acute appendicitis has its highest incidence in adolescence and young adulthood, with a peak in the teens and 20s. Lymphoid hyperplasia and luminal obstruction are more common in these age ranges, contributing to inflammation of the appendix. It is less common in infants and older adults, although elderly patients may have atypical presentations and higher perforation risk.
Category reason: The item tests epidemiology of a disease (appendicitis) and its typical age distribution, which is foundational pathology/clinical disease knowledge rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 15

Blood poisoning is called....?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: “Blood poisoning” is a lay term commonly used to describe septicemia—bacteria (and/or their toxins) present in the bloodstream causing systemic illness. Dementia is a cognitive disorder, dyspnea is difficulty breathing, and cholera is an acute diarrheal infection localized primarily to the gastrointestinal tract rather than a general term for bloodstream infection. Therefore, septicemia is the best match among the options.
Category reason: This item tests knowledge of medical terminology and disease concepts (what condition corresponds to the term “blood poisoning”), which is foundational pathology rather than nursing intervention or prioritization.

Question 16

Most common cancer in women...

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Breast cancer is the most commonly diagnosed cancer in women globally (excluding non-melanoma skin cancers in many reporting systems). It accounts for a larger proportion of new cancer cases in women than liver cancer, hematologic malignancies, or most skin cancers. Therefore, among the options provided, breast cancer is the best answer.
Category reason: The question tests epidemiology of malignancies (which cancer is most common), a disease-focused topic best classified under Pathology rather than nursing interventions or care decisions.

Question 17

Hansen’s disease is also known as - ??

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hansen’s disease is the historical and medical name for leprosy, a chronic infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium leprae (and M. lepromatosis). It primarily affects the skin and peripheral nerves, leading to hypoesthetic skin lesions and neuropathy. The other options are distinct infections (filariasis, yellow fever, and plague) with different causative organisms and clinical presentations.
Category reason: The item tests recognition of an alternative disease name (Hansen’s disease) and its underlying infectious condition, which is foundational biomedical knowledge about diseases rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario; this aligns best with Pathology.

Question 18

What structural lung change is associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: COPD includes emphysema, which is characterized by destruction of alveolar septa (alveolar walls). This reduces elastic recoil and causes air trapping and hyperinflation, leading to decreased gas-exchange surface area. The other options are inconsistent with COPD pathology: surface area decreases (not increases), mucus production typically increases in chronic bronchitis, and pulmonary vein thrombosis is not a typical defining structural change of COPD.
Category reason: The question tests a disease-related structural change (emphysema-related alveolar septal destruction) rather than nursing interventions or prioritization, which places it in Pathology.

Question 19

Koplik Spots are seen ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Koplik spots are small bluish-white lesions on the buccal mucosa that are pathognomonic for measles (rubeola). They typically appear during the prodromal phase with fever, cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis, before the characteristic maculopapular rash. The other options do not produce Koplik spots as a classic diagnostic feature.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of a hallmark clinical sign linked to a specific infectious disease, which is a pathology (disease identification/manifestations) knowledge domain rather than a nursing intervention scenario.

Question 20

The most common site of metastasis in carcinoma is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Carcinomas (epithelial malignancies) most commonly metastasize via lymphatics and also spread hematogenously, with the liver being a frequent and major site due to its high blood flow and portal venous drainage from many organs. The liver’s sinusoidal capillary network facilitates tumor cell trapping and implantation. Compared with kidney, pancreas, or skin, liver metastases are far more common across many primary carcinomas (e.g., gastrointestinal, breast, lung).
Category reason: This tests general mechanisms and common patterns of cancer metastasis, which is a foundational disease-process topic within Pathology rather than a nursing intervention or safety decision.

Question 21

What is the primary purpose of radiation therapy in cancer treatment?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Radiation therapy uses ionizing radiation to damage DNA in malignant cells, leading to cell death or loss of ability to replicate. This reduces tumor burden, can control local disease, and may be used curatively or palliatively to relieve symptoms from tumor mass effect. It is not primarily intended to reduce infection, improve circulation, or boost immunity.
Category reason: The question tests the foundational biomedical purpose and mechanism of a cancer treatment modality (radiation) rather than nursing actions or prioritization, which fits Pathology.

Question 22

The commonest cause of fatty liver is - ????

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Alcohol is a classic and very common cause of hepatic steatosis (fatty change) due to increased NADH driving triglyceride synthesis and impaired fatty acid oxidation/export from hepatocytes. It also promotes accumulation of fat by increasing peripheral lipolysis and hepatic uptake of free fatty acids. While starvation, steroids, and carbon tetrachloride can cause fatty change, they are less common overall compared with chronic alcohol use in standard pathology teaching.
Category reason: This is asking for the most common etiology of a liver pathologic change (hepatic steatosis), which is a foundational disease-process question rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 23

All are benign mesenchymal tumours of stomach except....?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Mesenchymal tumors arise from connective tissue elements (e.g., smooth muscle, fat, fibrous tissue). Leiomyoma (smooth muscle), lipoma (adipose tissue), and fibroma (fibrous tissue) are benign mesenchymal tumors that can occur in the stomach. Adenoma is a benign epithelial (glandular) tumor, not mesenchymal, so it is the exception.
Category reason: This is a classification question about tumor tissue origin (mesenchymal vs epithelial) and benign gastric tumor types, which is core Pathology content rather than a nursing care/intervention decision.

Question 24

What is a common symptom of drug-related poisonings?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Drug-related poisonings commonly affect the central nervous system, leading to altered mental status such as confusion, agitation, or decreased level of consciousness. This reflects toxic effects on neurotransmission and cerebral function and is a frequent early clinical clue in overdose. In contrast, isolated knee/foot/calf pain are not typical general poisoning manifestations, and “normal blood pressure” is not a symptom and does not suggest toxicity.
Category reason: The question tests recognition of typical clinical manifestations of poisoning (toxic effect on body systems), which is most aligned with pathology/toxicology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision.

Question 25

The correct signs and symptoms of gout are...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Gout classically presents as acute inflammatory arthritis with sudden, severe joint pain, swelling, redness, and tenderness, most often affecting the feet (especially the first metatarsophalangeal joint) and other peripheral joints. This pain is due to monosodium urate crystal deposition triggering intense local inflammation. Nausea/dizziness and headache are nonspecific and not typical primary manifestations of gout, and low back/waist pain is more suggestive of other conditions (e.g., renal colic or musculoskeletal causes) rather than gouty arthritis.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of the clinical manifestations of a disease process (gout) rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision, which aligns best with Pathology in NursingScience.

Question 26

Excessive uric acid in the blood causes...

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Excess uric acid in the blood (hyperuricemia) can precipitate as monosodium urate crystals in joints and surrounding tissues. These crystals trigger acute inflammatory arthritis known as gout, classically affecting the first metatarsophalangeal joint. While gout is a type of arthritis, the most specific and correct option is “Gout.” Diabetes and osteoporosis are not direct consequences of hyperuricemia.
Category reason: The item tests disease mechanism: how elevated uric acid leads to crystal deposition and inflammatory joint disease, which is primarily a pathology concept rather than a nursing intervention/management decision.

Question 27

All are true regarding maxillary carcinoma, except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Maxillary sinus carcinoma commonly presents with unilateral nasal obstruction and epistaxis due to local tumor invasion of the nasal cavity. Diagnosis is confirmed by tissue biopsy. These tumors are generally treated with radiotherapy (often with surgery/chemoradiation depending on stage) and are not classically described as radioresistant, making "Radioresistant" the exception.
Category reason: The question tests disease presentation, diagnostic confirmation, and treatment sensitivity of a malignancy, which is foundational disease knowledge best classified under Pathology rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 28

Which type of radiation therapy is delivered from a machine outside the body?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: External beam radiation therapy (EBRT) uses a linear accelerator or similar machine to direct radiation from outside the body toward a tumor. In contrast, brachytherapy and “internal radiation” involve placing a radioactive source inside or very close to the target tissue. Chemotherapy is systemic drug treatment and is not radiation therapy. Therefore, the modality delivered from a machine outside the body is EBRT.
Category reason: The question tests foundational oncology treatment modality knowledge—distinguishing external beam radiation from internal (brachytherapy) and from chemotherapy—rather than nursing judgment or an intervention scenario, fitting NursingScience under Pathology.

Question 29

The cancer arising from pigment cells of skin is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason:  Melanoma Melanoma is a malignant tumor that arises from melanocytes, the pigment-producing cells of the skin. Basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma arise from keratinocytes in the epidermis rather than pigment cells. Adenocarcinoma is a gland-forming epithelial cancer and is not the typical primary malignancy of pigment cells in skin.
Category reason: This question tests identification of the tumor type by its cell of origin (melanocytes), which is a core concept in disease classification and neoplasia, fitting Pathology.

Question 30

Most common cancer in females worldwide is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason:  Breast cancer Breast cancer is the most commonly diagnosed cancer among females globally when considering incidence. Cervical cancer remains a major burden in some regions, but overall worldwide prevalence of diagnosis is higher for breast cancer. Lung cancer is a leading cause of cancer death in women, but it is not the most common by incidence. Ovarian cancer is less common than breast, cervical, and lung cancers.
Category reason: This item tests epidemiology of malignancies (which cancer is most common in women), a foundational disease-burden fact typically covered under pathology rather than nursing interventions or clinical judgment.

Question 31

In assessing the nature of the stool of a client who has cystic fibrosis, what would the nurse expect to see?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason:  Steatorrhea stool's Cystic fibrosis commonly causes pancreatic exocrine insufficiency due to thick secretions obstructing pancreatic ducts, leading to poor fat digestion and absorption. This results in steatorrhea—bulky, greasy, foul-smelling stools that may float. Clay-colored stools are more typical of biliary obstruction with absent bile pigments, and blood-tinged stools are not an expected characteristic of CF-related malabsorption.
Category reason: This question tests the disease mechanism and expected clinical manifestation (fat malabsorption in cystic fibrosis leading to steatorrhea), which is primarily pathophysiology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision.

Question 32

Palliative treatment in cancer means:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason:  Relieving symptoms Palliative treatment focuses on improving quality of life by reducing pain, distress, and other symptoms of cancer and its treatments, rather than aiming for cure. It may include analgesia, antiemetics, psychosocial support, and palliative radiotherapy/chemotherapy for symptom control. Options like complete cure, preventing cancer, and early diagnosis describe curative therapy, primary prevention, and screening/early detection, respectively, not palliation.
Category reason: This item tests the definition and goal of palliative care in oncology, a foundational concept in disease management rather than a nursing-specific action scenario, fitting best under Pathology.

Question 33

Which of the following type of lung carcinoma is common among non-smokers?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Adeno carcinoma Adenocarcinoma is the most common lung cancer subtype in non-smokers and is typically a peripheral tumor arising from glandular/alveolar epithelial cells. In contrast, small cell and squamous cell carcinomas have a strong association with cigarette smoking and are classically more central/hilar in location. Large cell carcinoma is less common and not specifically associated with non-smokers compared with adenocarcinoma.
Category reason: This question tests epidemiologic association and histologic subtype patterns of lung cancer, which is core disease classification knowledge under Pathology rather than a nursing intervention/priority task.

Question 34

What organ is affected by hepatitis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Liver Hepatitis literally means inflammation of the liver (“hepat-” = liver, “-itis” = inflammation). Viral hepatitis (A, B, C, etc.) primarily injures hepatocytes, leading to elevated liver enzymes, jaundice, and impaired liver function. While severe hepatitis can have systemic effects, the directly affected organ is the liver.
Category reason: This question tests foundational disease knowledge—identifying the organ involved in an inflammatory condition (hepatitis)—which is a core Pathology concept rather than a nursing intervention/priority decision.

Question 35

EARLY DETECTION OF MALIGNANT MELANOMA ABCDE RULE

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: E Evolution In the ABCDE rule for melanoma screening, “Evolution” refers to a changing lesion (size, shape, color, symptoms such as bleeding/itching) over time, which is a key warning sign of malignant transformation. A lesion that evolves is more concerning than one that remains stable. This criterion complements asymmetry, border irregularity, color variation, and larger diameter in identifying suspicious pigmented lesions that warrant prompt evaluation/biopsy.
Category reason: This item tests recognition of the ABCDE diagnostic screening criteria for malignant melanoma, which is foundational disease-recognition content within Pathology rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization scenario.

Question 36

A patient is seen in the emergency room with complaints of abdominal pain. The provider examines the patient and states that guarding is present. Which of the following is not associated with guarding?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hyperactive Bowel Sounds Guarding is an involuntary tensing of the abdominal wall due to peritoneal irritation, commonly associated with rigidity and significant tenderness/pain on palpation. It is typically seen with underlying intra-abdominal pathology such as inflammation (e.g., appendicitis, peritonitis). Bowel sounds can be decreased or absent with peritoneal irritation/ileus; hyperactive bowel sounds are not a classic finding associated with guarding.
Category reason: This item tests recognition of physical exam findings related to peritoneal irritation and underlying intra-abdominal disease processes, which is primarily foundational pathophysiology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision.

Question 37

What is the most common type of stroke?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ischemic stroke Ischemic strokes account for the large majority of all strokes (commonly cited at about 80–87%) due to arterial occlusion and reduced cerebral blood flow. Hemorrhagic strokes are less common, though often more immediately life-threatening. Embolic and lacunar strokes are subtypes within the broader ischemic category, so the best overall answer is the umbrella type: ischemic stroke.
Category reason: This item tests foundational disease classification/epidemiology of stroke types rather than nursing interventions or prioritization, which aligns best with Pathology.

Question 38

Which Cancer kills the most.?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Lung and bronchus Lung and bronchus cancer is the leading cause of cancer death overall due to its high incidence and often late-stage diagnosis. Many patients present with advanced disease and metastases, limiting curative treatment options. In contrast, breast and colorectal cancers generally have more effective screening and earlier detection, improving survival, while pancreatic cancer has high lethality but lower incidence than lung cancer, resulting in fewer total deaths.
Category reason: This question tests epidemiology and disease burden (mortality) across malignancies, which is foundational pathology knowledge rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 39

Which pathophysiological defect causes Hirschsprung disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Absence of ganglion cells in the distal colon Hirschsprung disease is caused by congenital aganglionosis (absence of enteric ganglion cells) in the distal bowel, leading to failure of relaxation of the affected segment. This creates functional obstruction with proximal colonic dilation (megacolon). The defect involves the myenteric (Auerbach) and submucosal (Meissner) plexuses due to abnormal neural crest cell migration. The other options do not represent the defining lesion of Hirschsprung disease.
Category reason: This question tests the underlying disease mechanism/defect (aganglionosis) responsible for Hirschsprung disease, which is foundational pathologic knowledge rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 40

Q. Fever with relative bradycardia is seen in...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Typhoid Relative bradycardia (Faget sign) refers to an inappropriately low pulse rate for the degree of fever. It is classically associated with typhoid fever due to Salmonella typhi and is a commonly tested clinical clue. Malaria typically causes periodic fever with tachycardia during febrile spikes rather than relative bradycardia. Filaria and diphtheria are not classic causes of fever with relative bradycardia.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of a characteristic clinical sign (relative bradycardia/Faget sign) associated with a specific infectious disease, which is primarily disease-pathology knowledge rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization task.

Question 41

Which organ of the human body is mainly affected by malaria?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Liver Malaria parasites (Plasmodium) first infect hepatocytes after a mosquito bite and undergo a key stage of replication in the liver (exoerythrocytic phase). This hepatic phase is essential before the parasites enter the bloodstream to infect red blood cells and cause the characteristic febrile illness. While complications can involve kidneys, lungs, and other organs, the liver is the primary initial organ affected in the life cycle.
Category reason: This question tests disease mechanisms and target organs in an infectious disease (malaria), which is primarily studied under Pathology rather than nursing interventions or prioritization.

Question 42

Severe Hypo-Albuminemia!

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Anasarca Severe hypoalbuminemia lowers plasma oncotic pressure, causing fluid to shift from the intravascular space into the interstitial space, producing generalized edema (anasarca). The image shows marked pitting edema of the hand, which is a typical clinical manifestation of low serum albumin. Sepsis, cirrhosis, and eclampsia can be underlying causes of edema/hypoalbuminemia in some cases, but the best match for the manifestation of severe hypoalbuminemia is generalized edema/anasarca.
Category reason: This item tests the pathophysiologic consequence of low albumin (reduced oncotic pressure leading to generalized edema), which is a disease-process concept rather than a nursing intervention/priority question.

Question 43

The main cause of Lung Cancer is .?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Smoking Cigarette smoking is the leading cause of lung cancer and accounts for the majority of cases due to chronic exposure to carcinogens (e.g., polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons, nitrosamines) that induce DNA damage. Alcohol is not a primary causal factor for lung cancer, and sunlight exposure is linked to skin cancers rather than lung cancer. Therefore, “All of above” is incorrect because not all listed factors are main causes of lung cancer.
Category reason: This question tests etiologic risk factors for a malignancy (lung cancer), which is foundational disease knowledge rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision, fitting Pathology.

Question 44

Mumps mainly affects which gland?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Parotid gland Mumps is a viral infection classically causing parotitis, most prominently involving the parotid salivary glands. The hallmark finding is painful swelling near the jaw/ear due to inflammation of the parotid gland. While other glands/organs (e.g., testes, pancreas) can be affected, the primary and most characteristic gland is the parotid. Therefore, the best answer is the parotid gland.
Category reason: This is testing disease-specific target organ involvement (mumps causing parotitis), which is a foundational biomedical concept under pathology rather than a nursing management/intervention decision.

Question 45

Upregulation of anti-apoptotic factor BCL-2:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Leads to increased survival of cells with DNA damage. BCL-2 is an anti-apoptotic protein that inhibits the intrinsic (mitochondrial) apoptosis pathway by preventing cytochrome c release. When BCL-2 is upregulated, damaged cells that would normally undergo programmed cell death can persist and accumulate additional mutations. This promotes tumorigenesis by allowing survival of genetically unstable cells. The “GAP activity” option is unrelated (GAPs inactivate RAS), and decreased survival contradicts BCL-2’s anti-apoptotic function.
Category reason: This item tests a core mechanism of cancer pathophysiology (apoptosis regulation by BCL-2), which is foundational disease science rather than a nursing care decision, so it fits Pathology.

Question 46

Study of diseases is called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pathology Pathology is the branch of medical science that studies disease, including its causes (etiology), mechanisms (pathogenesis), and the structural/functional changes produced in cells, tissues, and organs. Anatomy focuses on normal structure, and physiology focuses on normal function. Microbiology studies microorganisms, some of which cause disease, but it is not the overarching study of diseases themselves.
Category reason: This is a foundational biomedical terminology question asking which discipline studies diseases, which directly falls under Pathology in Nursing Science rather than nursing judgment or patient-care decisions.

Question 47

A 40-year-old man complains of yellow eyes, dark urine, and fatigue. Such symptoms are found in which disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hepatitis Yellow eyes (jaundice) and dark urine are classic signs of hyperbilirubinemia, commonly due to hepatocellular inflammation impairing bilirubin conjugation and excretion. Hepatitis often presents with fatigue and systemic malaise along with jaundice and dark urine from elevated conjugated bilirubin spilling into urine. Typhoid, malaria, and dengue can cause fever and systemic symptoms, but jaundice with dark urine most directly points to liver inflammation/obstructed bilirubin handling as in hepatitis.
Category reason: This item tests recognition of a disease based on characteristic signs of jaundice and bilirubin handling, which is primarily a pathology (disease process/clinical manifestations) question rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 48

Which statement best describes the lesions caused by tuberculosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: chronic granulomatous inflammation with caseous necrosis Tuberculosis classically produces granulomas composed of epithelioid histiocytes and Langhans giant cells, reflecting a chronic, cell-mediated (type IV) inflammatory response. The center of these granulomas typically shows caseous necrosis, a “cheese-like” amorphous necrotic debris characteristic of TB. Liquefactive necrosis is more typical of pyogenic bacterial infections and abscess formation rather than TB lesions. Therefore, chronic granulomatous inflammation with caseous necrosis best describes TB lesions.
Category reason: This item tests the characteristic histopathologic lesion pattern of tuberculosis (granulomatous inflammation with caseation), which is a core concept in disease mechanisms and tissue response to injury, fitting Pathology.

Question 49

Which of the following is a common effect of alcoholism?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Liver cirrhosis Chronic alcohol use commonly causes progressive liver injury (fatty liver → alcoholic hepatitis → fibrosis) that can culminate in cirrhosis. Cirrhosis is a classic, high-yield complication of long-term alcoholism and leads to portal hypertension, impaired synthetic function (e.g., low albumin, coagulopathy), and hepatic encephalopathy. While hypertension and osteoporosis can be associated with alcohol use, they are less characteristic as the single best "common effect" compared with cirrhosis. Diabetes is not a direct hallmark effect in the same way, though alcohol-related pancreatitis can contribute to glucose dysregulation.
Category reason: The item tests a disease consequence of chronic alcohol exposure (organ damage and long-term complication), which is best categorized under Pathology rather than nursing interventions or prioritization.

Question 50

Which term describes inadequate blood supply to tissues?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ischemia Ischemia is defined as inadequate blood supply (perfusion) to a tissue, leading to reduced oxygen and nutrient delivery. Infarction is tissue death (necrosis) that can result from prolonged ischemia, so it is a consequence rather than the term for reduced blood flow itself. Thrombosis and embolism describe mechanisms (clot formation in situ or a traveling clot) that can cause ischemia but are not synonymous with inadequate blood supply to tissues.
Category reason: This is a foundational definition question about disease mechanisms (reduced perfusion and related vascular events), which is primarily studied in Pathology rather than nursing interventions or prioritization.

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