Mobility-Immobility Practice Test 1
Mobility-Immobility NCLEX Practice Test
Mobility-Immobility, within the NCLEX test plan under Physiological Integrity → Basic Care and Comfort, reflects the core knowledge domains and conceptual competencies directly related to what the exam evaluates. The targeted number of questions is 50; designed with realistic clinical scenarios and conceptual variety to help you identify both your strengths and improvement areas.
This test is the 1st part of the Mobility-Immobility section. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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In the Mobility-Immobility Study Cards section, shared by real NCLEX candidates, you’ll find concise summaries and high-yield insights related to the most tested concepts. It’s a perfect space to reinforce challenging topics and sharpen your recall through quick, focused repetitions. Short, powerful, and repeatable!
Mobility-Immobility Practice Test 1
The nurse is caring for a five year-old child who has the left leg in skeletal traction. Which of the following activities would be an APPROPRIATE diversional activity?
- Kicking balloons with right leg
- Playing Simon Says
- Playing hand held games
- Throw bean bags
Explanation: Answer reason: A child in skeletal traction must avoid activities that involve leg movement or could disrupt alignment. Hand-held games provide distraction and entertainment without risking movement of the affected limb or traction equipment.
A simple and cost-effective method for reducing the risk of hypostatic pneumonia in a bedridden patient is?
- Antibiotics
- Nebulization
- Frequent Change of Positions
- Humidified Oxygen
Explanation: Answer reason: Changing the patient’s position frequently helps improve lung expansion and prevent accumulation of secretions in dependent lung areas, thereby reducing the risk of hypostatic pneumonia. Other listed measures do not directly address stasis of pulmonary secretions.
The nurse is caring for a client with a long-leg cast. During discharge teaching about appropriate exercises for the affected extremity, the nurse should recommend?
- Isometric
- Range of motion
- Aerobic
- Isotonic
Explanation: Answer reason: When a limb is immobilized in a cast, isometric muscle-setting exercises maintain muscle strength and circulation without joint movement, preventing atrophy and protecting fracture alignment. Aerobic, isotonic, or range-of-motion exercises would move the joint and are not appropriate for the immobilized extremity.
The nurse is observing the ambulation of a client recently fitted with crutches. Which observation requires nursing intervention?
- Two finger-widths are noted between the axilla and the top of the crutch.
- The client bears weight on his hands while ambulating.
- The crutches and the client's feet move alternately.
- The client bears weight on his axilla while standing.
Explanation: Answer reason: Weight should be supported through the hands, with 2–3 finger-widths between the axilla and the crutch top. Bearing weight on the axilla risks brachial plexus injury and requires immediate correction.
The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old with cerebral palsy. Which nursing intervention will help prepare the child for rehabilitative services?
- Patching one eye to help strengthen the ocular muscles.
- Provide suckers and pinwheels to help strengthen tongue movement.
- Providing musical tapes for auditory training
- Encouraging playing a video game to improve muscle coordination
Explanation: Answer reason: Cerebral palsy affects motor control, including oral-motor function. Using suckers and pinwheels promotes tongue and oral muscle strength and breath control, preparing the child for speech and rehabilitative therapies. Eye patching treats amblyopia, musical tapes offer little motor benefit, and video games are not targeted oral-motor rehabilitation for a 4-year-old.
After a tonsillectomy, in what position should a 6-year-old boy who is sleepy but easily awakened be placed?
- Sims'
- Side-lying
- Supine
- Prone
Explanation: Answer reason: Post-tonsillectomy clients should be positioned to promote drainage of secretions and reduce the risk of aspiration. Side-lying maintains airway patency and allows drainage; supine increases the risk of aspiration.
The nurse notes a lesion that appears to be caused by tissue compression on the right hip of a patient who had a stroke 5 days ago. How should the nurse document this finding?
- Maceration
- Abrasion
- Excoriation
- Pressure ulcer
Explanation: Answer reason: Immobility after stroke leads to prolonged pressure over bony prominences; tissue compression that causes localized skin injury is documented as a pressure ulcer. Maceration is moisture-related, abrasion is a superficial scraping, and excoriation results from scratching.
A 6-year-old boy is returned to his room following a tonsillectomy. He remains sleepy from the anesthesia, but is easily awakened. The nurse should place the child in which of the following positions?
- Sims'
- Side-lying
- Supine
- Prone
Explanation: Answer reason: After a tonsillectomy, placing the child in the side-lying position promotes drainage of secretions/blood and helps prevent aspiration and airway obstruction. Supine is contraindicated; prone or side-lying are acceptable, with side-lying preferred.
The best position for any procedure that involves a vaginal and cervical examination is?
- Dorsal recumbent
- Side-lying
- Supine
- Lithotomy
Explanation: Answer reason: Lithotomy provides optimal exposure and access to the vagina and cervix for examinations and procedures.
To assess an immobilized patient, focus on the following, except:
- Range of motion
- Activity tolerance
- Body alignment
- Psychological condition
Explanation: Answer reason: Mobility assessment focuses on range of motion, activity tolerance, and body alignment. Psychological condition is important, but not a direct component of assessing mobility itself, making it the exception.
In what position is a rectal examination performed on a client?
- Dorsal recumbent
- Sims' position
- Supine
- Lithotomy
Explanation: Answer reason: Left lateral Sims' position, with the upper leg flexed, provides optimal exposure of the anus and relaxes the sphincter for rectal examination. Dorsal recumbent, supine, and lithotomy positions are used for other exams (e.g., vaginal/gynecologic).
What is the correct position to use during pleural tapping?
- Orthopneic
- Supine
- Prone
- Knee-chest
Explanation: Answer reason: Thoracentesis (pleural tap) is performed with the patient sitting upright and leaning forward—the orthopneic position—to widen intercostal spaces and allow fluid to collect dependently.
Which of the following clients is at highest risk for developing a pressure ulcer?
- 23-year-old client in traction for a fractured femur.
- 72-year-old client with peripheral vascular disease who is unable to walk without assistance.
- 75-year-old client with left-sided paresthesia and is incontinent of urine and stool.
- A 30-year-old who is comatose following a ruptured aneurysm.
Explanation: Answer reason: Greatest number of pressure-ulcer risk factors: advanced age, sensory deficit (paresthesia), and moisture from incontinence. Other options have fewer risk factors.
The nurse is caring for a client with Parkinson's disease. The client spends more than one hour dressing for scheduled therapies. The most appropriate action for the nurse is to?
- Ask family members to dress the client.
- Encourage the client to dress more quickly.
- Allow the client the time needed to dress.
- Demonstrate methods for dressing more quickly.
Explanation: Answer reason: Clients with Parkinson's should be allowed extra time to perform ADLs to promote independence; hurrying increases stress and worsens motor function.
The teenager with a fiberglass cast asks the nurse whether it will be okay to allow his friends to autograph his cast. Which response would be best?
- It will be all right for your friends to autograph the cast.
- Because the cast is made of plaster, autographing can weaken the cast.
- If they don't use chalk to autograph, it is okay.
- Autographing or writing on the cast in any form will damage the cast.
Explanation: Answer reason: Fiberglass casts can be safely signed (e.g., with a felt-tip marker) once dry; autographing will not weaken them. Option B incorrectly refers to plaster, C introduces an irrelevant restriction, and D is false.
Which position is given to the patient for a vaginal examination?
- Left lateral
- Fowler
- Lithotomy
- Supine
Explanation: Answer reason: Vaginal examinations are performed with the patient in the lithotomy position, which provides optimal access with hips and knees flexed and feet supported.
A patient who complains of difficulty breathing should be placed in which of the following positions?
- Fowler's position
- Supine position
- Lateral position
- Prone position
Explanation: Answer reason: Fowler's position (upright) promotes maximum lung expansion and reduces work of breathing, making it the best position for dyspnea. Supine, lateral, or prone do not optimize ventilation in respiratory distress.
A 35-year-old male client has undergone spinal anaesthesia. The nurse should immediately position the client in which of the following positions?
- Flat, in a supine position
- Left lateral position.
- Prone position with the head turned to the side.
- Knee-chest position
Explanation: Answer reason: After spinal anesthesia, the client should be kept flat in a supine position to minimize cerebrospinal fluid leakage and post-spinal headache and to maintain hemodynamic stability. Other positions are not recommended immediately post-procedure.
A recently hospitalized client with multiple sclerosis is concerned about generalized weakness and fluctuating physical status. What is the priority nursing intervention for this client?
- Encourage bed rest.
- Space activities throughout the day.
- Teach the limitations imposed by the disease.
- Have one of the client's relatives stay at the bedside
Explanation: Answer reason: MS commonly causes fatigue and variable strength; prioritizing energy conservation by pacing and spacing activities helps prevent overexertion and manages weakness better than bed rest or non-therapeutic measures.
A client has an amputation of a lower limb. What instructions should the nurse give the client to prevent a hip flexion contracture?
- Turn from side to side every 1 to 2 hours.
- Sit in a chair for 30 minutes three times a day.
- Lie on the abdomen 30 minutes four times daily.
- Perform quadriceps muscle setting exercises twice daily.
Explanation: Answer reason: Prone positioning extends the hip and counteracts flexion, preventing hip flexion contracture after lower-limb amputation. Sitting increases hip flexion and should be limited; turning and quadriceps sets do not specifically prevent hip flexion contracture.
A client arrives in the emergency department following an automobile crash. The client's forehead hit the steering wheel and a hyphema is diagnosed. The nurse should place the client in which position?
- Flat in bed
- A semi-Fowler’s position
- Lateral on the affected side
- Lateral on the unaffected side
Explanation: Answer reason: Hyphema is bleeding into the anterior chamber of the eye. Elevating the head (semi-Fowler’s) helps reduce intraocular pressure and allows blood to settle inferiorly, lowering the risk of complications. Supine or lateral positions are not recommended.
A simple and cost-effective method for reducing the risk of hypostatic pneumonia in a bedridden patient is?
- Antibiotics
- Nebulization
- Frequent Change of Positions
- Humidified Oxygen
Explanation: Answer reason: Hypostatic pneumonia results from stasis of secretions due to immobility. Turning and repositioning frequently promotes lung expansion and drainage of secretions, making it the simplest, most cost-effective prevention. Antibiotics treat infection; nebulization and humidified oxygen do not address stasis from immobility.
A 65-year-old client is admitted after a stroke. The nurse is concerned about skin breakdown and decubitus ulcer development. Which nursing intervention would best improve tissue perfusion to prevent skin problems?
- Assessing the skin daily
- Massaging any erythematous areas on the skin
- Changing incontinence pads as soon as they become soiled
- Performing range-of-motion exercises and turning and repositioning the client
Explanation: Answer reason: Turning/repositioning and ROM relieve pressure and enhance blood flow, directly improving tissue perfusion to prevent pressure ulcers. Massaging erythematous areas is contraindicated; assessment and changing pads aid prevention but do not best improve perfusion.
The surgical nurse is preparing a patient for surgery on the lower abdomen. In which position would the nurse most likely place the client for surgery on this area?
- Lithotomy
- Sim's
- Prone
- Trendelenburg
Explanation: Answer reason: Trendelenburg tilts the patient head-down, shifting abdominal viscera cephalad to improve exposure of the lower abdomen and pelvis. Lithotomy is mainly for perineal/rectal/vaginal procedures, Sims’ for rectal interventions, and prone for posterior surgeries.
The nurse is caring for a client with a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) who is complaining of being nauseated and is requesting an emesis basin. Which action would the nurse take first?
- Administer an ordered antiemetic
- Obtain an ice bag and apply to the client's throat
- Turn the client to one side
- Notify the physician
Explanation: Answer reason: CVA clients may have impaired gag and swallowing; if nausea/vomiting occurs, positioning on the side is the immediate priority to prevent aspiration. Other actions can follow once the airway is protected.
A client is scheduled to undergo a bone marrow aspiration from the sternum. What position would the nurse assist the client into for this procedure?
- Dorsal recumbent
- Supine
- Fowler's
- Lithotomy
Explanation: Answer reason: Sternal bone marrow aspiration is performed on the anterior chest; placing the client supine provides direct access and stabilization of the sternum.
The nurse is caring for a client with myasthenia gravis who is having trouble breathing. The nurse would encourage which of the following positions for maximal lung expansion?
- Supine with no pillow, to maintain patent airway
- Side-lying with back support
- Prone with head turned to one side
- Sitting or in high Fowler's
Explanation: Answer reason: Upright or high Fowler's maximizes diaphragmatic excursion and lung expansion, improving ventilation in a client with respiratory muscle weakness from myasthenia gravis. Supine, side-lying, or prone reduce lung expansion and can worsen breathing.
When planning the care for a client after a posterior fossa (infratentorial) craniotomy, which action is contraindicated?
- Keeping the client flat on one side
- Elevating the head of the bed 30°
- Log-rolling or turning as a unit
- Keeping the neck in a neutral position
Explanation: Answer reason: After infratentorial (posterior fossa) craniotomy, the client is kept flat or side-lying with the neck neutral and turned as a unit; elevating the head of the bed is avoided. Therefore HOB 30° is contraindicated.
What is the ideal technique for testing the gag reflex in a patient with diminished cardiovascular reflexes?
- Maintain side lying position
- Offer small sips of water
- Check cranial nerves 3, 4, 6
- No need of intervention
Explanation: Answer reason: With a diminished gag reflex the priority is airway protection; positioning the client in a side-lying position reduces aspiration risk during assessment. Offering water is unsafe, CN III/IV/VI are unrelated to gag reflex, and intervention is required.
What is the best position to prevent tension on the suture line and edema for a post-thyroidectomy client?
- Supine with head turned
- Semi-Fowler’s with neck supported
- Prone with head extended
- Side-lying with chin to chest
Explanation: Answer reason: After thyroidectomy, placing the client in Semi-Fowler’s with the neck supported reduces venous congestion and minimizes tension on the cervical suture line, preventing edema and stress on the incision.
Which of the following is a key nursing intervention to promote graft viability post-operatively?
- Avoiding daily dressings changes
- Applying ice to the grafted area
- Elevating limb above the heart
- Restricting activity for 24 hours
Explanation: Answer reason: Elevation reduces edema and venous congestion, improving perfusion and helping the graft take. Ice can impair blood flow; frequent dressing changes risk shearing the graft; restricting activity for only 24 hours is insufficient and not the key intervention.
Which statement by a patient recovering from Guillain-Barré Syndrome indicates the need for further education?
- I need to watch for signs of respiratory distress.
- It's important to keep my follow-up appointments.
- I start exercising hard since I feel better now.
- I might have residual weakness even after recovery.
Explanation: Answer reason: During recovery from Guillain-Barré, activity should be gradual and paced to avoid fatigue and setback; strenuous exercise is inappropriate. Monitoring respiration, attending follow-ups, and knowing residual weakness may persist are correct.
What position helps prevent further damage in a patient with suspected retinal detachment?
- High Fowler's with head tilted back
- Prone with head midline
- Supine with head turned to affected side
- Bedrest with head elevated and eye immobilized
Explanation: Answer reason: For suspected retinal detachment, minimize eye and head movement to prevent further tearing. Keep the patient on bedrest with the head elevated and the affected eye immobilized/patches until definitive treatment.
The nurse suspects the patient is having a seizure. The nurse knows to?
- Not move the patient
- Move the patient to a side-lying position
- Move the patient to a prone position
- Move the patient into Fowler’s position
Explanation: Answer reason: Side-lying maintains airway patency and allows secretions to drain, reducing aspiration risk during a seizure. Prone and Fowler’s compromise airway protection, and doing nothing may not ensure safety.
What is the correct head position during active epistaxis?
- Backward tilt
- Neutral and upward
- Forward lean
- Chin tucked to chest
Explanation: Answer reason: During a nosebleed the head should be tilted slightly forward to prevent blood from flowing into the throat and risking aspiration; leaning back or upward is contraindicated.
In a baby with myelomeningocele, how should the nurse position the hips and feet to maintain proper alignment?
- Hips abducted and feet in neutral position
- Hips adducted and feet flexed
- Hips subluxed and feet extended
- Hips adducted and feet in natural position
Explanation: Answer reason: In myelomeningocele, positioning aims to prevent hip subluxation and foot contractures. Abducting the hips and keeping the feet in a neutral position maintains alignment and reduces deformity risk.
What is the appropriate position for a postoperative total hip replacement client?
- On the non-operative side
- Supine position with legs abducted with a help pillow
- Supine position with legs adducted
- Side lying position with affected leg externally rotated
Explanation: Answer reason: Post–total hip replacement, the hip must be kept abducted to prevent dislocation; a pillow or abduction device is used between the legs. Adduction and certain side-lying positions risk dislocation.
In which position will the nurse place a client prepared to receive an epidural patch for a postlumbar puncture headache?
- Side-lying position.
- Dorsal recumbent position.
- Lithotomy position.
- Upright position.
Explanation: Answer reason: An epidural blood patch is placed like an epidural injection; the lateral decubitus (side-lying) position with spine flexed provides stability and optimal access to the epidural space.
In which position should the nurse place a client prepared to receive an epidural patch for a post-lumbar puncture headache?
- Side-lying position
- Dorsal recumbent position
- Lithotomy position
- Upright position
Explanation: Answer reason: For an epidural blood patch, the client is typically positioned in a lateral (side-lying) curled position to flex the spine and allow access to the epidural space. Dorsal recumbent and lithotomy are inappropriate; upright may be used but side-lying is the standard preparatory position.
When moving the left arm away from the trunk of the body in a client with right-sided stroke, which muscular movement is the nurse performing?
- Rotation
- Inversion
- Adduction
- Abduction
Explanation: Answer reason: Moving a limb away from the body's midline is abduction. Adduction moves toward the midline; rotation turns a part around its axis; inversion applies to the foot.
In which position should a client with an ischemic stroke be placed?
- HOB 30-45 degrees
- HOB flat with client in midline
- Flat supine with arms above head
- Prone with pillow under abdomen
Explanation: Answer reason: Elevating the head of the bed 30–45 degrees keeps the head midline, reduces risk of aspiration, and helps limit intracranial pressure after stroke.
In which position should a nurse place an 8-year-old child who is sleepy but easily awakened after a tonsillectomy?
- Prone position
- Supine position
- Side-lying position
- Trendelenburg position
Explanation: Answer reason: After tonsillectomy, place the child lateral (or prone) to allow drainage of secretions and reduce risk of aspiration/airway obstruction; avoid supine and Trendelenburg.
You were assigned to a patient. Upon assessment, the patient elicited Homan’s sign. What is the nursing priority using this assessment?
- Encourage fluid and electrolyte balance
- Encourage good venous circulation
- Secure patent airway
- Promote skin care
Explanation: Answer reason: A positive Homan’s sign suggests possible DVT. The priority nursing focus is to promote venous return and prevent thrombus formation/extension by encouraging good venous circulation. Airway, fluids/electrolytes, and skin care are not the immediate priority for this finding.
The nurse is caring for a client who is in the late stage of multiple myeloma. Which of the following should be included in the plan of care?
- Monitor for hyperkalemia
- Place in protective isolation
- Precautions in assisting client to change positions
- Administer diuretics as ordered
Explanation: Answer reason: Multiple myeloma causes bone demineralization and osteoporosis, placing the client at high risk for pathologic fractures; therefore use extreme caution and assist carefully during position changes. Other options are not priority or not typical (e.g., hypercalcemia rather than hyperkalemia).
The nurse is caring for a client with an unstable spinal cord injury at the T7 level. Which of the following interventions should take PRIORITY in planning care?
- Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration
- Place client on a pressure reducing support surface
- Use skin care products designed for use with incontinence
- Increase caloric intake
Explanation: Answer reason: Clients with spinal cord injury have immobility and decreased sensation, placing them at high risk for pressure injury. The priority is to reduce pressure, shear, and friction by using a pressure-reducing support surface. Hydration, caloric intake, and skin products are helpful but not the first priority for preventing breakdown.
The nurse is caring for a 13 year-old following spinal fusion for scoliosis. Which of the following interventions is appropriate in the immediate post-operative period?
- Raise the head of the bed at least 30 degrees
- Encourage ambulation within 24 hours
- Maintain in a flat position, logrolling as needed
- Encourage leg contraction and relaxation after 48 hours
Explanation: Answer reason: Immediately after spinal fusion, the spine must be kept aligned and protected; the bed remains flat for at least the first 24 hours and turning is done with logrolling. Early HOB elevation or ambulation risks injury, and leg exercises should start earlier than 48 hours.
The nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver with ascites. When instructing nursing assistants in the care of the client, the nurse should emphasize that?
- The client should remain on bed rest in a semi-Fowler's position
- The client should alternate ambulation with bed rest with legs elevated
- The client may ambulate and sit in chair as tolerated
- The client may ambulate as tolerated and remain in semi-Fowlers position in bed
Explanation: Answer reason: Alternating ambulation with periods of bed rest and leg elevation promotes venous/lymphatic return to reduce peripheral edema and helps mobilize ascitic fluid. Continuous bed rest or unrestricted activity without elevation is less effective.
A client with a fractured tibia has a plaster-of-Paris cast applied to immobilize the fracture. Which action by the nurse indicates understanding of a plaster-of-Paris cast? The nurse?
- Handles the cast with the fingertips
- Petals the cast
- Dries the cast with a hair dryer
- Allows 24 hours before bearing weight
Explanation: Answer reason: Correct cast care includes petaling the edges to prevent skin irritation and soiling. A is incorrect (use palms, not fingertips), C is unsafe (avoid heat to dry plaster), and D is inaccurate because plaster typically requires 24–48+ hours before weight bearing.
In which of the following positions does a patient lie face down?
- Dorsal
- Erect
- Lateral
- Prone
Explanation: Answer reason: Prone position is lying on the abdomen with the face down. Dorsal/supine is face up, erect is standing, and lateral is side-lying.
In planning discharge teaching for a client after a lumbar laminectomy, the nurse would instruct the client to exercise regularly to strengthen which muscles?
- Anal sphincter.
- Abdominal.
- Trapezius.
- Rectus femoris.
Explanation: Answer reason: Post–lumbar laminectomy teaching emphasizes core strengthening to support the lumbar spine; abdominal muscles stabilize the back and reduce strain. The other muscles do not provide lumbar support for this condition.
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