Question 1

While doing CPR the compression ventilation ratio in an adult should be?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: For adult CPR with a single rescuer (and also for two-rescuer adult CPR without an advanced airway), current BLS guidelines recommend a compression-to-ventilation ratio of 30 compressions to 2 breaths. This ratio prioritizes continuous high-quality chest compressions to maintain coronary and cerebral perfusion while still providing periodic ventilation. Ratios like 15:2 apply to pediatric CPR with two rescuers, not routine adult CPR.

Question 2

Which position is used for shock management?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: For immediate shock management in basic nursing exam context, the Trendelenburg position (head down, legs elevated) is traditionally taught to promote venous return and temporarily support cardiac output and blood pressure. Fowler’s can reduce venous return and may worsen hypotension. Lithotomy is for pelvic/gynecologic procedures, and simple supine without leg elevation provides less support for venous return than Trendelenburg.

Question 3

A patient with history of hypertension presents with a severe headache, blurred vision, and BP of 220/120 mmHg. What is the most appropriate initial nursing intervention?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: BP 220/120 mmHg with severe headache and blurred vision suggests a hypertensive emergency with possible acute target-organ involvement (e.g., neurologic/retinal). The priority is rapid but controlled BP reduction using IV antihypertensives that can be titrated (e.g., nicardipine, labetalol) and close monitoring. Waiting 30 minutes delays care, and oral agents are slower and less titratable in emergencies. Trendelenburg does not treat hypertension and can worsen intracranial pressure and symptoms.

Question 4

CPR should be initiated within how many minutes of cardiac arrest?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In cardiac arrest, CPR should begin immediately because every minute without circulation markedly decreases survival and worsens neurologic outcomes. Initiating CPR within about 1 minute (i.e., as soon as arrest is recognized) aligns with basic life support priorities of early CPR and early defibrillation. Waiting 2–4 minutes or longer increases the likelihood of irreversible brain injury and lowers the chance of return of spontaneous circulation. Therefore, the best choice is 1 minute.

Question 5

It is a method used to extract stomach contents especially when someone has ingested extractable Poison?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Gastric lavage is a procedure intended to remove gastric contents after certain poison ingestions when the substance is still in the stomach and is potentially retrievable. Intubation protects the airway but does not remove stomach contents, urinary catheterization is for bladder drainage/monitoring output, and endoscopy is mainly diagnostic/therapeutic for GI pathology rather than routine poison extraction. In suspected toxic ingestion, gastric lavage is considered only in specific situations and typically requires airway protection if the patient’s mental status is impaired.

Question 6

What should be kept at bedside of tracheostomy patient?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A tracheostomy patient is at high risk for acute airway obstruction, accidental decannulation, and secretion plugging, so emergency airway equipment must be immediately available. Keeping an extra tracheostomy tube at the bedside allows rapid reinsertion if decannulation occurs. An Ambu bag enables manual ventilation through the trach or stoma if respiratory failure develops. A suction apparatus is necessary to clear secretions and maintain airway patency, so all listed items are appropriate.

Question 7

Cord prolapse is best managed by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Umbilical cord prolapse is an obstetric emergency because cord compression can rapidly cause fetal hypoxia and bradycardia. Definitive management is urgent delivery, and in most cases this is best accomplished by emergency cesarean section unless an immediate vaginal delivery is truly imminent. Trendelenburg positioning is a temporizing maneuver to reduce pressure on the cord while preparing for definitive delivery, not the best overall management. Artificial rupture of membranes can precipitate or worsen cord prolapse and is contraindicated in this setting.

Question 8

While Performing CPR, The Compression depth for Adults is at least?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Adult CPR guidelines recommend a compression depth of at least 2 inches (5 cm) to generate adequate cardiac output and perfusion during cardiac arrest. Shallower compressions (e.g., 1 inch) are insufficient and associated with poorer outcomes. Excessively deep compressions (e.g., 3 or 5 inches) are not recommended and increase risk of injury without improving effectiveness. Therefore, 2 inch is the best answer.

Question 9

A 48-year-old man became unresponsive shortly after presenting to you with nausea and generalized chest discomfort. You observe gasping breathing and are unsure if you feel a pulse. You should now?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: An unresponsive adult with agonal (gasping) respirations should be treated as cardiac arrest. If a pulse is not definitely felt within about 10 seconds, BLS guidelines direct rescuers to start CPR immediately because delays reduce survival. Calling for help/activating emergency response and beginning chest compressions provides the fastest circulation support. Waiting to recheck later or requiring certainty of pulselessness in this setting inappropriately delays life-saving compressions.

Question 10

A nurse of the telemetry unit is caring for a client who has had a MI and is now attached to a cardiac monitor. The nurse is monitoring the client's cardiac rhythm and notes ventricular fibrillation. Which nursing intervention should the nurse do first?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ventricular fibrillation is a lethal, pulseless rhythm requiring immediate emergency response with defibrillation and CPR; the priority is to activate the emergency response system to bring the resuscitation/defibrillation resources immediately. Cardioversion is used for unstable tachyarrhythmias with a pulse (synchronized), not VF. Vagal maneuvers (bearing down/cough) are for certain supraventricular tachycardias, and diltiazem is used for rate control in atrial arrhythmias, neither of which treats VF.

Question 11

What is the priority action for a trauma patient exhibiting tracheal deviation, absent breath sounds on one side, and hypotension after chest trauma?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Tracheal deviation with unilateral absent breath sounds and hypotension after chest trauma is classic for tension pneumothorax causing obstructive shock. The priority is immediate life-saving decompression; treatment must not be delayed for imaging. Needle decompression rapidly relieves intrathoracic pressure and improves venous return and ventilation, followed by definitive chest tube placement. Oxygen and IV fluids may be supportive but do not correct the underlying lethal problem.

Question 12

Which of the following signs is a likely indicator of cardiac arrest in an unresponsive patient?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Agonal gasps are abnormal, ineffective breaths that can occur shortly after cardiac arrest and should be treated as a sign of cardiac arrest rather than normal breathing. In an unresponsive patient, the presence of agonal respirations indicates the need to activate emergency response and begin CPR/AED protocols promptly. Cyanosis is a late, nonspecific finding and pulse descriptions can be misleading because pulses may be absent or difficult to detect in arrest. Therefore, agonal gasps are the most reliable indicator among the options.

Question 13

Proper hand placement for chest compression during CPR [cardio-pulmonary resuscitation] procedure is essential to reduce the risk of the following complication?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: During CPR, compressions must be delivered on the lower half of the sternum with correct hand placement to optimize force transmission and minimize injury. Incorrect placement (too high or over the ribs/xiphoid) increases the risk of trauma to the ribs and adjacent structures. Rib fractures are a well-recognized complication of chest compressions, and proper technique reduces (though does not eliminate) this risk. The other options are not the primary complications prevented specifically by correct hand placement.

Question 14

What is the first step in trauma primary survey?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Trauma primary survey follows the ABCDE approach, starting with A for airway (with cervical spine protection). A patent airway is the most immediate life priority because airway obstruction rapidly causes hypoxia and cardiac arrest. Breathing, circulation, and disability are assessed after airway is secured/assessed, because they depend on adequate oxygen delivery.

Question 15

Which artery is palpated for infant CPR pulse check?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: For infant CPR, the recommended pulse check site is the brachial artery because it is more reliably palpated in infants than peripheral sites like the radial artery. Carotid pulse checks are used in older children and adults, and carotid palpation in infants can be difficult and potentially compressible. Femoral can be used in some situations, but brachial is the standard taught site for infant pulse checks during BLS assessment.

Question 16

What is the target compression rate in CPR per minute?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Current BLS/ACLS guidelines recommend a chest compression rate of 100 to 120 compressions per minute for adult CPR. Rates below 100/min can reduce cardiac output and coronary/cerebral perfusion, while rates above 120/min often lead to inadequate depth and incomplete chest recoil. Maintaining 100–120/min supports effective circulation when combined with proper depth and minimal interruptions.

Question 17

The nurse is caring for a client who sustained a chemical burn to the right eye. Which of the following actions would be a priority for the nurse to take?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: For an ocular chemical burn, immediate copious irrigation is the priority to dilute and remove the chemical and limit ongoing tissue damage. Delaying irrigation to assess visual acuity can worsen corneal injury and long-term vision outcomes. Applying pressure can further injure the eye, and preparation for surgery is not the first step before decontamination and stabilization.

Question 18

What is the most reliable sign of cardiac arrest?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cardiac arrest is defined by the absence of effective cardiac output, and the most reliable bedside sign is absence of a palpable central pulse. Cyanosis and dilated pupils are late or nonspecific findings and can occur in other causes of hypoxia. Apnea can occur from primary respiratory arrest with a pulse still present, so it is less specific for cardiac arrest than pulselessness. Therefore, “No pulse” best identifies cardiac arrest.

Question 19

The first step to control bleeding is ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The first-line intervention for external bleeding is to apply firm, direct pressure to the wound to compress damaged vessels and promote clot formation. Elevation and cold application can be adjuncts but are not the initial priority over pressure. A tourniquet is reserved for severe, life-threatening extremity hemorrhage not controlled with direct pressure or when direct pressure is not possible.

Question 20

How nursing exams be: "The 75 yo male patient is suffering from COPD. His pulsox is 0%, his HR is 0, and his RR is 0. What should you, as the nurse, implement?"?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: An SpO2 of 0% with HR 0 and RR 0 indicates cardiopulmonary arrest and is incompatible with life; the patient is deceased. In real clinical practice, the nurse would confirm unresponsiveness, activate the emergency response system, and begin BLS/CPR unless a valid DNR/AND order is present, but the meme’s options are all synonymous for death. Among the provided choices, “deceased” is the most clinically standard term and best answer.

Question 21

A nurse is caring for a client post-cardiac catheterization. The client reports back pain and has a drop in blood pressure. What is the nurse's first action?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Back pain with a sudden drop in blood pressure after cardiac catheterization is highly concerning for retroperitoneal bleeding/hemorrhage, which can rapidly become life-threatening. The priority is immediate escalation for emergency evaluation and hemodynamic support rather than delayed actions like documentation. While checking the insertion site is appropriate, retroperitoneal bleeding may occur without obvious external bleeding, so activating rapid response is the safest first action to mobilize urgent assessment and treatment.

Question 22

A patient in active labor suddenly develops acute dyspnea, hypotension, and cyanosis; FHR bradycardic. Suspect amniotic fluid embolism. What is the first nursing action?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Amniotic fluid embolism is a sudden, catastrophic obstetric emergency causing acute respiratory distress, cardiovascular collapse, and fetal bradycardia from maternal hypoxia/hypotension. The immediate priority is to activate emergency response and provide life-sustaining interventions (airway, breathing, circulation), including CPR if indicated. Increasing oxytocin can worsen uterine tachysystole and does not address maternal collapse, and coaching breathing or ambulating delays definitive resuscitation and stabilization.

Question 23

Which condition requires Trendelenburg position?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Trendelenburg position (often left lateral decubitus with head down, Durant maneuver) is used for suspected venous air embolism to help trap air in the right atrium/ventricle and reduce the risk of it entering the pulmonary outflow tract. This positioning is an immediate emergency response while definitive management (100% oxygen, stopping the source, aspiration via central line if present) is initiated. Pulmonary edema is typically managed with high-Fowler’s to improve ventilation. Stroke and myocardial infarction do not require Trendelenburg and may be worsened by increased intracranial pressure or respiratory compromise.

Question 24

Nurse Jamie is working in the psychiatric unit when a patient, Mr. Wilson, becomes uncontrollably angry and starts threatening other clients and staff. What is the most appropriate action for Nurse Jamie to take?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A client who is threatening others presents an imminent safety risk, so the priority is to protect clients and staff by calling for help and initiating emergency safety measures. In acute escalating aggression, the nurse should mobilize the team (e.g., security/rapid response per facility policy) and prepare for medication if de-escalation is not feasible or the situation is unsafe. Options B and D delay action and can allow violence to occur, and option C is nontherapeutic and may further escalate agitation. Therefore, calling for security and preparing for a sedative is the safest and most appropriate immediate response.

Question 25

A child is brought to the emergency room with suspected epiglottitis. What should the nurse avoid?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In suspected epiglottitis, manipulating the oropharynx (e.g., using a tongue depressor to visualize the throat) can trigger laryngospasm and sudden complete airway obstruction. The priority is to maintain a calm environment and support airway/oxygenation without provoking distress. Giving oxygen, starting IV fluids (if it can be done without upsetting the child), and promptly notifying the physician/anesthesia team are appropriate supportive and escalation measures while preparing for airway management.

Question 26

A client is 2 hours post-thyroidectomy. The nurse notices the client is hoarse and has stridor. What is the priority action?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hoarseness with stridor shortly after thyroidectomy suggests acute airway compromise from laryngeal edema, hematoma, or recurrent laryngeal nerve involvement, and stridor is a late, critical sign. The immediate nursing priority is to secure the airway and be ready for rapid deterioration, so preparing for emergent intubation (and activating rapid response/anesthesia support) is most appropriate. Suctioning may not relieve an obstructed upper airway, and repositioning or analgesia would delay definitive airway management.

Question 27

Umbilical Cord Prolapse Emergency A nurse observes an umbilical cord prolapse in a client at 38 weeks gestation. What is the priority nursing action?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Umbilical cord prolapse is an obstetric emergency because cord compression can rapidly cause fetal hypoxia. The immediate priority is to relieve pressure on the cord by positioning the client in knee-chest or Trendelenburg to use gravity to lift the presenting part off the cord. Pushing the cord back increases vasospasm and trauma risk, and encouraging pushing worsens compression. External fetal monitoring is important but does not treat the immediate life-threatening problem.

Question 28

A postoperative client suddenly complains of shortness of breath and chest pain. What is the nurse's first action?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Sudden postoperative shortness of breath and chest pain can indicate a life-threatening event (e.g., pulmonary embolism, pneumothorax, or myocardial ischemia) requiring immediate support of airway and breathing. The priority is ABCs: position the client to optimize ventilation (raise HOB) and administer oxygen to treat hypoxemia while further assessment/response is initiated. Notifying the provider is important but is not the first action when immediate respiratory support is needed. Checking the incision or encouraging coughing does not address the urgent oxygenation problem and could delay stabilization.

Question 29

A postoperative patient suddenly develops chest pain and dyspnea. What is the priority nursing action?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Sudden postoperative chest pain with dyspnea is a potential life-threatening emergency (e.g., pulmonary embolism, myocardial infarction, or acute respiratory compromise) requiring immediate escalation of care. Activating the rapid response team ensures prompt assessment, monitoring, and initiation of time-sensitive interventions. While positioning the patient upright and obtaining an ECG can be appropriate, they should not delay calling for urgent help. Reassurance alone is unsafe and does not address possible rapid deterioration.

Question 30

You are caring for a newly admitted client with increasing dyspnea and dehydration who has possible avian influenza (bird flu). Which of these prescribed actions will you implement first?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The priority is to address the immediate life-threatening problem using ABCs; increasing dyspnea indicates compromised oxygenation. Applying high-concentration oxygen via a non-rebreather mask is an urgent intervention to improve oxygen delivery while further evaluation and treatment are arranged. Antivirals and diagnostic specimen collection are important but do not take precedence over stabilizing breathing. IV fluids may help dehydration, but hypoxia from respiratory distress is the more acute threat.

Question 31

Which pulse site is used during CPR?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: During adult CPR, the recommended pulse check site for a healthcare provider is the carotid artery because it is a central pulse and remains palpable even with low cardiac output. Peripheral pulses such as radial and pedal can be absent during shock or arrest and are unreliable. Femoral is also a central pulse, but carotid is the standard, fastest-access site in typical adult BLS/ACLS pulse checks.

Question 32

While changing the tapes on a tracheostomy tube, the male client coughs and the tube is dislodged. The initial nursing action is to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A dislodged tracheostomy tube is an airway emergency; the immediate priority is to maintain access to the tracheal stoma so it does not rapidly close, especially if the trach is new. If retention sutures are present, pulling them helps open the stoma and facilitates prompt reinsertion of the tube (or an obturator/same-size or smaller tube) to re-establish a patent airway. Calling the physician or respiratory therapy may be necessary, but it delays the immediate action needed to preserve the airway. Covering the site with a dressing is not appropriate as an initial action because it does not address potential loss of airway.

Question 33

A 35 year old male patient developed air embolus while receiving parenteral nutrition through central venous catheter. Which among the following is the immediate nursing action?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: With suspected air embolism from a central venous catheter, the immediate priority is to prevent the air from traveling into the pulmonary circulation and obstructing outflow. Placing the patient in the left lateral decubitus position (often with Trendelenburg) helps trap air in the right atrium/ventricle (Durant maneuver), reducing the risk of catastrophic hemodynamic collapse. Raising the head of the bed would promote air migration, Valsalva is preventive during catheter manipulation rather than a response to an embolus, and notifying the provider is important but should follow immediate life-saving positioning and stabilization.

Question 34

Which pulse site is most commonly used in emergency situation?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In an emergency, the carotid pulse is most commonly assessed because it is a central pulse and is more reliable when peripheral perfusion is poor (e.g., shock, cardiac arrest). The radial pulse may be absent with hypotension even when a central pulse is present. During adult CPR assessment, healthcare providers check for a carotid pulse to quickly determine presence of circulation. Femoral can also be used as a central pulse, but carotid is typically the standard, most accessible site in adults.

Question 35

A patient with a severe allergic reaction should recieve which medication first?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In a severe allergic reaction (anaphylaxis), intramuscular epinephrine is the first-line, time-critical medication because it rapidly reverses airway edema/bronchospasm (beta effects) and supports blood pressure by vasoconstriction (alpha effects). Antihistamines and corticosteroids are adjuncts that do not act quickly enough to treat life-threatening airway or circulatory compromise. Oxygen therapy can support oxygenation but does not treat the underlying anaphylactic pathophysiology and is not a medication; epinephrine must be given first to prevent progression to respiratory failure and shock.

Question 36

What is the most important initial step in managing a patient with suspected anaphylactic shock?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In suspected anaphylactic shock, intramuscular epinephrine is the first-line, most time-critical intervention because it rapidly reverses airway edema/bronchospasm (beta effects) and supports blood pressure via vasoconstriction (alpha effects). Oxygen and IV fluids are important supportive measures but do not address the underlying life-threatening mediator effects as quickly as epinephrine. Monitoring vital signs should not delay definitive treatment. Therefore, administering epinephrine is the most important initial step.

Question 37

First drug in CPR ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In adult cardiac arrest algorithms (CPR/ACLS), epinephrine is the primary medication used for both shockable and non-shockable rhythms, given early in non-shockable rhythms and after initial defibrillation attempts in shockable rhythms. It improves coronary and cerebral perfusion pressure via alpha-adrenergic vasoconstriction during CPR. Dopamine is mainly for post-resuscitation hypotension/bradycardia, lidocaine is an antiarrhythmic alternative to amiodarone for VF/pVT, and atropine is no longer recommended routinely for asystole/PEA.

Question 38

Which vaccine given after dog bite?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: After a dog bite, the key vaccine consideration is rabies post-exposure prophylaxis because dogs can transmit rabies through saliva via bites. Rabies is almost universally fatal once symptoms appear, so vaccination is a critical time-sensitive preventive intervention. Depending on exposure risk and prior vaccination status, rabies immune globulin and a rabies vaccine series may be indicated along with wound care. Measles, mumps, and BCG do not prevent a bite-associated rabies infection.

Question 39

The maximum time for suctioning in adults is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In adults, each suction pass should be limited to about 10 seconds to reduce the risk of hypoxemia, vagal stimulation (bradycardia), and mucosal trauma. Prolonged suctioning can rapidly drop oxygen saturation, especially in patients with limited respiratory reserve. Best practice is to pre-oxygenate as indicated and allow recovery time between passes while reassessing breath sounds and oxygenation.

Question 40

The color used for tagging a dead body is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In standard mass-casualty/triage tagging (e.g., START), black indicates the victim is deceased or expectant (non-salvageable given available resources). Red is immediate, yellow is delayed, and green is minor/walking wounded. Therefore, the correct tag color for a dead body is black.

Question 41

The nurse enters a client's room and finds the client lying on the floor and appearing unresponsive. The nurse should initially?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: For a client who appears unresponsive, the nurse’s first action is to assess responsiveness by calling/shouting the client’s name and attempting to rouse them. This quickly distinguishes true unresponsiveness from sleep/syncope or altered mental status and determines whether to proceed to activate emergency response and begin ABC assessment/CPR. Initiating a code blue is not the first step unless the client is confirmed unresponsive with absent/abnormal breathing and/or no pulse per facility protocol. Pulse and respirations are assessed immediately after confirming unresponsiveness.

Question 42

The nurse enters a client's room and finds the client on the ground. The nurse should perform which initial action?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: When finding a client on the ground, the nurse’s first priority is rapid assessment of responsiveness (level of consciousness) to determine if the client is unstable and requires immediate activation of emergency response. LOC assessment is the quickest way to identify potential airway, breathing, or circulation compromise and guides next steps (e.g., calling for help, checking pulse/breathing, initiating CPR). Assessing for injuries is important but follows determination of immediate life threats. Calling the RRT may be indicated after the initial quick assessment if the client is unresponsive, unstable, or showing acute deterioration.

Question 43

An ambu bag is used in the intensive care unit when?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: An ambu bag (bag-valve-mask) is used to provide positive-pressure ventilation when a patient is not breathing adequately or has stopped breathing (respiratory arrest). Copious surgical drainage does not indicate a need for assisted ventilation. Ventricular fibrillation requires defibrillation and high-quality CPR; a bag-valve-mask may be used during resuscitation, but the indication in this question is specifically respiratory arrest. Monitoring respiratory output is not the purpose of an ambu bag.

Question 44

Which artery is commonly used for Pulse assessment in CPR?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: During adult CPR, the carotid artery is the preferred site for pulse checks because it is a central pulse that remains palpable at lower blood pressures and during low-flow states. The radial pulse is peripheral and may be absent even when a central pulse is present, making it unreliable in arrest. Femoral can be used but is less commonly recommended for routine checks compared with carotid, and brachial is primarily used in infants.

Question 45

Which of the following is the most important first aid step for a traumatic finger amputation?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The amputated part should be protected from contamination and tissue damage while being kept cool to slow ischemia until definitive surgical care is available. Wrapping it in clean gauze/cloth, sealing it in a plastic bag, and placing the bag on ice (not directly in ice water) avoids frostbite and maceration while maintaining cold preservation. Direct ice water contact can damage tissue, and leaving it exposed to air promotes drying and nonviability. Attempting reattachment without medical help is unsafe and delays proper hemorrhage control and microsurgical management.

Question 46

Which measure should the nurse take first when finding a patient with a seizure?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The first priority during an active seizure is to maintain airway patency and reduce aspiration risk, which is best achieved by turning the patient to a side-lying position. Restraining the patient can cause musculoskeletal injury and does not stop seizure activity. An oral airway should not be inserted during the seizure because it can damage teeth or soft tissues and may obstruct the airway. Calling the physician is not the immediate first action compared with ensuring immediate safety and airway protection.

Question 47

A 3-year-old arrives at the ER drooling and sitting in a tripod position. What is the priority action?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Drooling with tripod positioning in a young child strongly suggests impending upper-airway obstruction (classically epiglottitis) and is an airway emergency. The priority is to be ready to secure the airway because agitation or throat manipulation can rapidly precipitate complete obstruction. Obtaining a throat culture or extensive assessment can delay airway management and increase risk. IV fluids may be needed later, but airway stabilization is the immediate life-saving action.

Question 48

How many chest compressions per cycle in adult CPR?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: For adult CPR with a single rescuer, the standard compression-to-ventilation ratio is 30:2, meaning 30 chest compressions constitute one cycle before giving 2 breaths. This aligns with BLS guidelines aimed at maintaining adequate coronary and cerebral perfusion. Ratios like 15:2 apply to pediatric CPR with two rescuers, not adult single-rescuer CPR.

Question 49

The compression to ventilation ratio in CRF in case of single rescue is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: For adult CPR with a single rescuer, the standard compression-to-ventilation ratio is 30 compressions followed by 2 rescue breaths. This ratio prioritizes maintaining coronary and cerebral perfusion by minimizing pauses in chest compressions. Alternative ratios like 15:2 are used for two-rescuer CPR in children/infants, not single-rescuer adult CPR.

Question 50

Patient has tonic-clonic seizure. First action?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: During an active tonic-clonic seizure, the priority is airway protection and prevention of aspiration. Turning the patient to the side (recovery position) promotes drainage of secretions/vomit and helps maintain a patent airway. Restraining the limbs can cause fractures or soft-tissue injury, and inserting objects into the mouth can damage teeth or obstruct the airway. Pinching the nose does not stop seizures and may worsen hypoxia.

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