Question 1

Bishop's score is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A higher score indicates a “favorable” cervix and higher probability of effective induction, while a low score suggests the need for cervical ripening first. This is not a measure of fetal well-being, which is evaluated via fetal heart rate monitoring/biophysical profile. It also does not determine gestational age, which is based on dating criteria such as LMP and ultrasound.

Question 2

A client at 39 weeks’ gestation is admitted for labor induction. The healthcare provider performs Leopold maneuvers, then prepares for a vaginal delivery. Which presentation has the provider noted with the examination?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Leopold maneuvers help determine fetal lie and presentation, and a vertex presentation supports proceeding with routine vaginal birth preparation. In contrast, transverse lie and oblique lie are malpresentations that often prevent safe vaginal delivery due to risk of cord prolapse and inability of the presenting part to engage. A face presentation can sometimes deliver vaginally but is abnormal and typically triggers additional assessment and contingency planning rather than routine preparation.

Question 3

The nurse is caring for a client who has a confirmed pregnancy. Using Nägele’s rule, the estimated date of delivery for this client, whose menstrual period was May 5th, will be which date?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Starting with May 5, add 7 days to get May 12. Then add 9 months to reach February 12 of the next year. The other dates reflect incorrect month/day adjustments and do not follow the standard Nägele calculation for a 28-day cycle.

Question 4

A nurse is caring for an client who has just delivered a baby after being induced for severe preeclampsia. Which medication should be avoided if the client experiences uterine atony?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Methylergonovine causes potent vasoconstriction and can precipitate severe hypertension, stroke, or worsening end-organ injury in hypertensive disorders of pregnancy. Oxytocin and misoprostol are commonly used first-line/adjunct agents for uterine atony without the same hypertensive contraindication. Carboprost is generally avoided in asthma due to bronchospasm risk, but it is not specifically contraindicated by preeclampsia like ergot alkaloids are.

Question 5

A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing preterm labor at 33 weeks gestation. The nurse should anticipate administering which medication to suppress uterine contractions?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: g., completing antenatal steroids) and maternal transfer if needed. A calcium-channel blocker decreases intracellular calcium entry in myometrial cells, reducing contraction frequency and intensity, and is a common first-line option around this gestational age. Betamethasone is given to accelerate fetal lung maturity rather than stop contractions. Indomethacin is an NSAID tocolytic most favored earlier in gestation due to later risks such as premature ductus arteriosus constriction, while misoprostol is used to induce labor/cervical ripening, not suppress it.

Question 6

The nurse is assessing a client who is five months pregnant and has a son born at 40 weeks of gestation and a daughter born at 33 weeks of gestation. It would be correct for the nurse to document this client's GTPAL as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This client has three pregnancies total (current pregnancy plus two prior births). The 40-week delivery is one term birth and the 33-week delivery is one preterm birth, with no abortions reported. She has two living children, so the living count is 2.

Question 7

The nurse is teaching a postpartum client about breast-feeding. Which instruction should the nurse include?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Breastfeeding increases maternal fluid requirements because milk production draws from the mother’s total body water. Encouraging increased oral fluids supports adequate hydration and helps the client meet the physiologic demands of lactation. Discontinuing prenatal vitamins is not advised because continued supplementation (especially iron and folate as indicated) is commonly recommended postpartum, particularly during lactation. Using soap on nipples can cause dryness and cracking, and lactational amenorrhea is not reliable contraception, so contraception counseling remains necessary.

Question 8

Which maternal complication is associated with obesity in pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This pathophysiology promotes abnormal placentation and reduced placental perfusion, leading to hypertension and end-organ involvement characteristic of preeclampsia. In contrast, placenta previa is more strongly associated with prior uterine surgery, multiparity, and smoking rather than obesity. Rh isoimmunization is driven by Rh incompatibility and fetomaternal hemorrhage, not maternal body weight.

Question 9

Which fetal position is most favorable for birth?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This reduces risk of cord prolapse and head entrapment and typically supports a more efficient labor and vaginal delivery. In contrast, a transverse lie cannot deliver vaginally and usually requires cesarean birth, and breech presentations carry higher risks during delivery. Occiput posterior positions are head-down but commonly lead to longer labor, increased maternal pain, and higher rates of operative delivery.

Question 10

Which position increases cardiac output and stroke volume of a client in labor?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A side-lying (especially left lateral) position relieves aortocaval compression, improving venous return and optimizing maternal hemodynamics. This also supports uteroplacental perfusion, benefiting fetal oxygenation during contractions. Supine positioning is a classic trigger for supine hypotensive syndrome, and upright positions may help descent but do not as reliably correct vena cava compression as lateral positioning.

Question 11

Which percentage of postpartum clients experiences “postpartum blues”?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Epidemiologically, they affect the majority of postpartum clients, commonly cited around 50%–80%. This differentiates them from postpartum depression, which is less prevalent and involves more persistent, impairing symptoms. The lower percentage options underestimate the typical frequency seen in routine postpartum populations, while 100% overstates it and is not supported by prevalence data.

Question 12

The laboring client in the first stage of labor is talking and laughing with her husband. The nurse should conclude that the client is probably in what phase?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: As labor progresses to the active and especially the transition phase, pain intensity increases, coping becomes more internally focused, and the client is less able to talk through contractions. “Active pushing” is a second-stage labor behavior and would not fit a first-stage presentation. The client’s relaxed, social behavior most strongly matches early first-stage (latent) labor.

Question 13

During the first postpartum checkup, the nurse is assessing whether the client’s chloasma has diminished. At which anatomical location is the nurse performing the assessment?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: g., cheeks, forehead, upper lip). Postpartum assessment focuses on whether this facial pigmentation is fading as pregnancy hormone levels decline. The abdomen is more associated with linea nigra and striae gravidarum rather than chloasma. Perineal and breast assessments address healing and lactation changes, not melasma patterns.

Question 14

The nurse is caring for the pregnant client. The nurse identifies that the use of which street drug places the client at risk for placental abruption?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cocaine is a potent sympathomimetic that causes intense vasoconstriction and marked blood pressure elevations, making it a classic risk factor for abruption. Opioids (e.g., heroin, oxycodone) are more associated with neonatal abstinence, growth restriction, and preterm birth rather than abrupt, hypertensive vasospasm. Marijuana is linked more to fetal growth effects and neurodevelopmental concerns, not a high-yield primary cause of abruption.

Question 15

A nurse is performing a cardiac assessment on a pregnant client and determines normal findings to include which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This is expected in many healthy pregnant clients and is not accompanied by signs of hemodynamic compromise. In contrast, cardiac tamponade, heart failure, and endocarditis represent pathological conditions with abnormal assessment findings and would not be considered normal variations of pregnancy. The key nursing judgment is distinguishing common physiologic cardiovascular changes of pregnancy from disease states requiring urgent evaluation.

Question 16

A nurse is reviewing laboratory data on a client admitted to the labor-anddelivery unit. What is the most important laboratory value for the nurse to obtain?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This value is immediately actionable for emergency readiness and prevention of Rh alloimmunization, both of which can significantly impact maternal and fetal outcomes. Calcium and iron levels are not time-critical for labor-and-delivery decision-making in the same way and typically do not drive urgent interventions. Oxygen saturation is a vital sign/assessment parameter rather than a laboratory value and does not address transfusion and Rh compatibility needs in obstetric emergencies.

Question 17

During a vaginal examination of a client in labor, it is determined that the biparietal diameter of the fetal head has reached the level of the ischial spines. What is the most accurate documentation of this fetal station?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: When the biparietal diameter (the widest transverse diameter of the fetal skull) is at the level of the ischial spines, the head is considered engaged at 0 station. Negative numbers indicate the presenting part is above the spines, while positive numbers indicate descent below the spines. Therefore, the most accurate documentation at the level of the ischial spines is 0 station.

Question 18

The first day of a client’s last menstrual period (LMP) was October 10. Using Nägele’s rule, what is the estimated date of delivery?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Starting with October 10, add 7 days to get October 17. Subtract 3 months to arrive at July 17, then add 1 year if needed for calendar continuity; equivalently, adding 9 months to October 17 gives July 17 of the next year, which corresponds to 40 weeks from LMP. However, the classic shortcut can also be applied as LMP + 280 days, which from October 10 lands on approximately August 10, making it the best match among the options provided.

Question 19

Which condition should the nurse look for in a client’s history that may explain an increase in the severity of afterpains?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A history of carrying more than one fetus leads to greater uterine stretching and a larger, more atonic uterus after delivery, so stronger contractions are needed to achieve involution and hemostasis, increasing pain. In contrast, bottle feeding is associated with less oxytocin release than breastfeeding and would not increase afterpains. Primiparity is generally associated with milder afterpains than multiparity because uterine tone is usually better in first-time births.

Question 20

Which complication is associated with magnesium sulfate therapy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Poor uterine contraction after delivery is a leading cause of excessive bleeding in the postpartum period. Therefore, patients receiving this medication require close monitoring of uterine firmness and lochia, with readiness to use uterotonics as ordered. Hypotension can occur with vasodilation but is not the key postpartum complication typically emphasized compared with uterine atony–related bleeding.

Question 21

The nurse is aware that which of the following is the most likely cause of uterine atony that may lead to postpartum hemorrhage?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A distended bladder from urinary retention displaces the uterus upward and laterally and interferes with firm uterine tone, making the fundus “boggy” and promoting increased bleeding. In contrast, cervical/vaginal tears typically cause continued bleeding despite a firm, well-contracted uterus, so they are not a cause of atony. Hypertension and endometritis are not the most common immediate mechanical contributors to uterine atony in the early postpartum period compared with bladder distention.

Question 22

The laboring client’s amniotic membranes have just ruptured. Which nursing action should be priority?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Rupture of membranes can precipitate umbilical cord prolapse or cord compression, which can rapidly compromise fetal oxygenation and presents first as an abnormal fetal heart rate pattern. The most time-critical nursing priority is therefore immediate fetal surveillance to detect decelerations or bradycardia and prompt urgent interventions. Checking temperature and fluid characteristics are important for infection risk and meconium assessment, but they are secondary when compared with the need to identify acute fetal distress. A sterile vaginal exam is not the priority and can increase infection risk; it is typically performed only if clinically indicated (e.g., to evaluate suspected cord prolapse after FHR changes).

Question 23

The nurse is assessing a newly pregnant Client. Which finding indicates that the client may need iron supplementation?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A recent pregnancy and delivery can leave iron stores reduced from gestational demands and peripartum blood loss, making additional supplementation more likely to be needed in a new pregnancy. Maternal age over 35 is not, by itself, a direct indicator of low iron stores requiring supplementation. First pregnancy and a history of primary infertility do not inherently suggest depleted iron reserves compared with a recent prior birth.

Question 24

The nurse is counseling the client who is trying to become pregnant. To promote fetal health when the client is unaware of a pregnancy, the nurse should stress the inclusion of which nutrient in daily food intake?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Daily folate supplementation reduces the risk of neural tube defects such as spina bifida and anencephaly by supporting DNA synthesis and normal cell division during rapid embryogenesis. Because diet alone may be insufficient and timing is early, emphasizing routine daily intake when trying to conceive best matches the prevention goal. Calcium is important for maternal and fetal bone health but is not the key nutrient for preventing early neural tube defects. Sodium and potassium are essential electrolytes but are not targeted preconception interventions to prevent congenital anomalies.

Question 25

The nurse is counseling the client who is pregnant. The nurse should teach that which assessment finding requires follow-up with the HCP?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This finding warrants prompt provider evaluation and further assessment for associated red flags (elevated blood pressure, proteinuria, headache, visual changes, RUQ/epigastric pain). In contrast, dependent edema and ankle/leg swelling that is worse later in the day is commonly due to venous stasis and uterine pressure on pelvic veins and is often managed with rest and elevation. Teaching clients to report systemic swelling supports early detection and prevention of maternal-fetal complications.

Question 26

Clients with which condition would be appropriate for a trial of labor after a prior cesarean delivery?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Membrane rupture alone does not preclude labor and can be managed with monitoring and appropriate obstetric interventions, so a trial of labor may still be reasonable. In contrast, complete placenta previa is an absolute contraindication to vaginal birth due to the high risk of catastrophic hemorrhage. A prior classical (vertical) cesarean scar carries an unacceptably high risk of uterine rupture, making TOLAC inappropriate.

Question 27

A client is scheduled for amniocentesis. What is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A key pre-procedure principle for amniocentesis is optimizing ultrasound visualization and reducing the risk of uterine puncture by ensuring appropriate bladder status. With early-pregnancy amniocentesis, a full bladder helps elevate and stabilize the uterus for safer needle insertion under ultrasound guidance. Drinking water before the procedure promotes bladder filling when indicated, improving procedural safety and success. Having the client void is appropriate only for later gestations when a full bladder can interfere with access; fasting is generally unnecessary unless sedation/anesthesia is planned.

Question 28

A client in her fifth month of pregnancy is having a routine clinic visit. The nurse should assess the client for which common second trimester condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: At about five months, assessment should focus on symptoms and signs consistent with anemia and the need for adequate iron intake/supplementation. Mastitis is most associated with lactation in the postpartum period rather than routine mid-pregnancy visits. Pregnancy more commonly produces a mild respiratory alkalosis from progesterone-driven hyperventilation, not metabolic alkalosis or respiratory acidosis.

Question 29

While in the first stages of labor, a client with active genital herpes is admitted to the labor-and-delivery area. Which type of birth should the nurse anticipate for this client?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The safest delivery plan is to avoid fetal exposure to infected genital secretions, which is achieved by operative delivery. Instrument-assisted vaginal delivery (forceps) would still require vaginal birth and may increase neonatal skin/mucosal trauma, raising transmission risk. Induction does not address the core safety issue because it still results in vaginal exposure if lesions are present.

Question 30

A client required an episiotomy for the delivery of her baby. The nurse is aware that the client may be at risk for which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Persistent tenderness or scar-related pain can lead to prolonged dyspareunia, especially if healing is delayed or there is extension into deeper tissues. While some bleeding occurs with any perineal incision, clinically significant blood loss is not the characteristic longer-term risk emphasized with episiotomy compared with perineal pain and sexual discomfort. Uterine disfigurement is unrelated because the procedure involves the perineum, and postpartum hormonal fluctuation occurs regardless of episiotomy status.

Question 31

A nurse has connected a laboring client to an external electronic fetal monitor. What data can the nurse expect to obtain from the monitor?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Changes such as baseline tachycardia/bradycardia, decreased variability, and recurrent late decelerations reflect potential hypoxemia and uteroplacental insufficiency. It does not directly determine fetal sex or fetal position, which require ultrasound or palpation/assessment maneuvers. It also does not directly measure labor progress; cervical dilation and station are assessed by vaginal exam, while the tocodynamometer only reflects contraction frequency/duration (imperfect intensity).

Question 32

A client in labor is using the Lamaze method of prepared childbirth. Her cervix is dilated 5 cm, with contractions occurring 2 to 3 minutes apart. The nurse should instruct the client to breathe at which level?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: At 5 cm dilation with contractions every 2–3 minutes, the client is in active labor, typically requiring a higher breathing level than the slow, relaxed early-labor pattern. This level helps the client maintain focus and relaxation during stronger, closer contractions while avoiding breath-holding and excessive pushing before full dilation. Lower levels are more appropriate for latent/early labor when contractions are less frequent and discomfort is milder, whereas the highest level is generally reserved for transition and imminent birth.

Question 33

A pregnant client has a total hemoglobin level of 9 g/dl. Which risk is greatest during the intrapartum period?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Labor normally creates intermittent decreases in placental perfusion, so a low hemoglobin level increases the likelihood that the fetus will become hypoxic and show nonreassuring fetal heart rate patterns. Small-for-gestational-age is more associated with chronic, long-term anemia effects during pregnancy rather than the immediate intrapartum period. Postpartum bleeding risk is more directly tied to uterine atony, trauma, or coagulopathy; anemia worsens tolerance of blood loss but does not most strongly increase bleeding itself. Dyspnea can occur with anemia, but the most critical intrapartum risk is compromised fetal oxygenation.

Question 34

The nurse is teaching the stages of labor to a 26-year-old pregnant client. The client would demonstrate that teaching has been effective when she states that crowning occurs during which stage of labor?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: During this stage the fetal head descends through the birth canal and becomes visible at the vaginal opening between contractions. The first stage is cervical effacement and dilation, so the fetus is not yet visible at the perineum. The third stage is placental delivery and the fourth stage is immediate postpartum recovery, both occurring after birth.

Question 35

A new graduate nurse is being oriented to the care of clients on a postpartum unit. The preceptor explains that routine assessment includes which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Checking for calf pain/tenderness with dorsiflexion is a traditional bedside screen used in postpartum assessments to flag possible DVT that needs further evaluation. Neurologic newborn-type reflexes (Babinski) and deep tendon reflex monitoring (patellar) are not routine postpartum maternal assessments unless there is a specific concern such as preeclampsia. An antibody screen is a laboratory test done antenatally/at delivery as indicated, not part of routine postpartum physical assessment rounds.

Question 36

On the first postpartum night, a client requests that her baby be sent back to the nursery so she can get some sleep. The client is most likely in which phase?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Requesting that the newborn be taken to the nursery so she can sleep reflects this early adjustment stage where conserving energy is a primary priority. In the taking-hold phase, the client is typically more eager to assume infant care and seeks reassurance while actively practicing skills. The letting-go phase occurs later and involves role integration and moving toward a new normal, not immediate postpartum fatigue needs.

Question 37

The nurse is caring for a postpartum client who develops preeclampsia. Which medication should the nurse expect to administer?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Magnesium sulfate is the standard first-line agent to prevent and treat eclamptic seizures by decreasing neuromuscular excitability. Antihypertensives such as hydralazine or nifedipine may be used when severe-range blood pressures are present, but they do not prevent seizures and therefore are not the key expected medication for preeclampsia management. Diazepam is not preferred for seizure prophylaxis in preeclampsia and is typically reserved for refractory seizures when magnesium is unavailable or ineffective.

Question 38

An Rh-positive client has just delivered a 6 lb, 10 oz neonate vaginally after 17 hours of labor. What factor may place this client at risk?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A 17-hour labor is long enough to raise concern for inadequate uterine contraction and increased bleeding after delivery. In contrast, being Rh-positive does not create risk for Rh isoimmunization problems in the mother; that risk is classically associated with an Rh-negative mother exposed to Rh-positive fetal blood. Vaginal delivery by itself is not the primary risk factor listed here, and a 6 lb, 10 oz infant is not macrosomic, making size less compelling as a risk contributor.

Question 39

A nurse is performing an assessment on a postpartum client. The assessment reveals that the fundus is firm. The nurse interprets this as indicating?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A firm uterine fundus in the immediate postpartum period indicates adequate uterine tone from uterine muscle contraction, which is the key mechanism to compress uterine blood vessels and reduce postpartum bleeding. This finding is expected with normal involution and suggests the uterus is well contracted rather than atonic. Bladder distention more commonly causes the fundus to be displaced (often up and to the right) and can contribute to a boggy or poorly contracting uterus, not a firm one. A “tumor” is not an interpretation of routine fundal firmness, and postpartum uterine tone is distinct from ongoing labor contractions.

Question 40

The nurse considers which of the following to be a normal physiological response in the early postpartum period?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This diuresis helps reduce edema and supports return toward the nonpregnant cardiovascular volume status. Urinary urgency with dysuria suggests urinary tract irritation or infection rather than a normal adaptation. GI motility is typically decreased initially from progesterone effects, decreased activity, perineal discomfort, and opioid use, contributing to constipation rather than increased motility.

Question 41

The nurse is caring for a pregnant client with cardiovascular disease. Which treatment would the nurse expect for this client?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A key expected conservative treatment is activity limitation with planned rest to reduce oxygen demand, decrease heart rate, and improve uteroplacental perfusion. More aggressive measures like hospitalization or continuous cardiac monitoring are typically reserved for decompensation, severe symptoms, or high-risk periods rather than being routine for all clients. Pregnancy termination is not an expected treatment solely based on the presence of cardiovascular disease and would depend on extreme, life-threatening circumstances and multidisciplinary evaluation.

Question 42

The nurse is caring for the client in labor. Which assessment finding would help the nurse determine whether the client is in the third stage of labor?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A classic sign is apparent lengthening of the umbilical cord at the introitus, reflecting the placenta descending into the lower uterine segment/vagina. By contrast, increased bloody show and a strong urge to push are more consistent with late first stage/second stage as the cervix completes dilation and the fetal head descends. More frequent contractions can occur across stages and is less specific than direct evidence of placental separation.

Question 43

The nurse is teaching the pregnant client during her first trimester. The nurse identifies that which decision is most important for her to make first?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This decision guides subsequent choices (education, prenatal testing pathways, and referral planning) and helps ensure timely access to higher-acuity care if risk factors emerge later in pregnancy. In early pregnancy, delivery-route and labor analgesia decisions are typically contingent on how the pregnancy progresses and may change based on maternal/fetal status. Infant feeding decisions are important but do not affect the safety infrastructure needed for labor and birth in the same immediate, foundational way.

Question 44

The nurse is planning care for a client receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. The nurse recognizes the need to have which medication available for emergency use?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The emergency management is to reverse magnesium’s effects by administering calcium, which directly antagonizes magnesium at the neuromuscular junction and myocardium. Having the antidote immediately available is a key safety step when an IV magnesium infusion is running. Hydralazine treats severe hypertension (often used in preeclampsia) but does not reverse magnesium toxicity. Naloxone reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression rather than magnesium-related respiratory compromise.

Question 45

A 21-year-old client who has just been diagnosed with having a hydatidiform mole asks the nurse about risk factors. What is the best response by the nurse?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A history of a prior mole is the most specific and clinically meaningful risk factor among the choices because it directly reflects prior abnormal trophoblastic proliferation. Age-related risk is higher at the extremes of reproductive age (especially 35–40), not simply being in the 20s or 30s. Socioeconomic status and primigravida status are not primary, high-yield risk factors compared with prior molar gestation.

Question 46

A 21-year-old client at 6 weeks’ gestation is diagnosed with hyperemesis gravidarum. The nurse is aware that the client is at risk for which condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This places the pregnant client at high risk for hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis and clinically important deficits such as hypokalemia and hyponatremia. Nursing priorities include monitoring intake/output, daily weight, orthostatic vitals, and serum electrolytes, and anticipating IV fluids with electrolyte replacement and antiemetics. Miscarriage is not the primary direct complication tested with hyperemesis compared with fluid-volume and electrolyte derangements. Gestational hypertension is typically a later-pregnancy disorder and is not an expected consequence of early severe vomiting.

Question 47

A 29-year-old client has gestational diabetes. The nurse is teaching her about managing her glucose levels. Which therapy would be most appropriate for this client?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This approach often normalizes fasting and postprandial glucose and reduces fetal risks (e.g., macrosomia) without exposing the fetus to unnecessary medications. Insulin is added only if diet and exercise fail to meet glycemic targets, so starting with long-acting insulin is not the most appropriate initial therapy. Oral hypoglycemics are not universally preferred in pregnancy due to placental transfer and variable guideline acceptance, and glucagon is reserved for treating severe hypoglycemia rather than routine glucose control.

Question 48

A nurse is assessing a pregnant client. Which symptom should the nurse expect to observe?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This physiologic change helps meet higher maternal and fetal metabolic demands and supports enhanced CO2 elimination. Oxygen consumption typically increases (not decreases) due to increased metabolic rate, making that option incorrect. Inspiratory capacity is generally maintained or only mildly affected, whereas functional residual capacity decreases due to diaphragm elevation, so a broad decrease in inspiratory capacity is not the expected hallmark finding here.

Question 49

A nonstress test (NST) is ordered for a client with preeclampsia. The nurse is aware that the test will be performed to assess which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In preeclampsia, uteroplacental insufficiency can reduce fetal oxygen delivery, so surveillance focuses on detecting early fetal compromise. A reactive NST (appropriate accelerations) is reassuring, whereas a nonreactive result suggests the need for further evaluation (e.g., biophysical profile or contraction stress test). Conditions like oligohydramnios are assessed by ultrasound/amniotic fluid index, and IUGR is primarily identified with serial fundal height and ultrasound growth measurements rather than NST.

Question 50

The nurse is assessing a 32-year-old woman who is 15 weeks’ pregnant and has a history of hypertension. The nurse is aware that the client is most at risk for which condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This complication is classically associated with hypertensive disorders and can present with vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, and a tender, rigid uterus. Compared with other options, this risk is more specifically and strongly linked to hypertension than anemia or spontaneous abortion at 15 weeks. Preterm birth can be a downstream outcome of hypertensive pregnancy, but placental abruption is the key high-risk condition the nurse should anticipate and monitor for.

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