Medication Administration Practice Test 1
Medication Administration NCLEX Practice Test
Medication Administration, within the NCLEX test plan under Physiological Integrity → Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies, reflects the core knowledge domains and conceptual competencies directly related to what the exam evaluates. The targeted number of questions is 50; designed with realistic clinical scenarios and conceptual variety to help you identify both your strengths and improvement areas.
This test is the 1st part of the Medication Administration section. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
Continue Learning
In the Medication Administration Study Cards section, shared by real NCLEX candidates, you’ll find concise summaries and high-yield insights related to the most tested concepts. It’s a perfect space to reinforce challenging topics and sharpen your recall through quick, focused repetitions. Short, powerful, and repeatable!
Medication Administration Practice Test 1
For a client complaining of periocular aching after a surgical repair of a detached retina, which medication would be the most appropriate analgesic?
- Acetaminophen
- Codeine
- Meperidine
- Morphine
Explanation: Answer reason: Acetaminophen is the safest choice because it provides pain relief without increasing intraocular pressure or causing coughing or straining, which could compromise healing after retinal surgery.
A 2 year-old child is being treated with Amoxicillin suspension, 200 milligrams per dose, for acute otitis media. The child weighs 30 lb. (15 kg) and the daily dose range is 20-40 mg/kg of body weight, in three divided doses every 8 hours. The nurse should
- Give the medication as ordered
- Call the practitioner to clarify the dose
- Recognize that antibiotics are over-prescribed
- Hold the medication as the dosage is too low
Explanation: Answer reason: The ordered dose totals 600 mg per day (200 mg every 8 hours), which is appropriate for a 15-kg child based on the recommended range of 20–40 mg/kg/day (300–600 mg/day). Since the dose falls within the safe therapeutic range, the medication should be given as prescribed.
A woman diagnosed with bipolar disorder is to take lithium (Lithane) as part of the treatment. The nurse should discuss with the client?
- Risks of oral contraceptives
- Reduction in exercise program
- Avoidance of alcohol
- Cessation of smoking
Explanation: Answer reason: Alcohol increases the sedative and dehydrating effects of lithium, which can raise serum lithium levels and greatly increase the risk of toxicity. Clients taking lithium must avoid alcohol to maintain stable hydration and safe drug levels.
The nurse is observing a student nurse administering ear drops to a 2-year-old. Which observation by the nurse would indicate correct technique?
- Holds the child's head up and extended
- Places the head in chin-tuck position
- Pulls the pinna down and back
- Irrigates the ear before administering medication
Explanation: Answer reason: For children under 3 years old, the correct technique for administering ear drops is to pull the pinna down and back to straighten the ear canal and ensure proper medication delivery.
A client is admitted with a suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT). What is the priority nursing intervention?
- Administering pain medication
- Applying warm compresses to the affected leg
- Administering anticoagulant therapy as ordered
- Elevating the affected leg
Explanation: Answer reason: Administering anticoagulant therapy is the priority because it prevents clot extension and reduces the risk of a life-threatening pulmonary embolism, which is the most serious complication of DVT.
A client newly diagnosed with diabetes is started on Precose (acarbose). The nurse should tell the client that the medication should be taken:
- 1 hour before meals
- 30 minutes after meals
- With the first bite of a meal
- Daily at bedtime
Explanation: Answer reason: Acarbose must be taken with the first bite of a meal because it works in the intestine to delay carbohydrate absorption; taking it before or after eating makes it ineffective.
Intravenous injections are more suitable for oily solutions:
- True
- False
Explanation: Answer reason: Intravenous injections are not suitable for oily solutions because oily preparations can cause emboli, vessel irritation, and impaired blood flow. Oily solutions are typically administered intramuscularly, not IV.
What is the appropriate distance of the dropper from the eye when instilling eye drops?
- 0.5-1.5 cm
- 1.5–2 cm
- 2–2.5 cm
- 3–4 cm
Explanation: Answer reason: For ophthalmic drops, the dropper should be held about 1–2 cm above the conjunctival sac to avoid contaminating the tip while allowing the drop to fall accurately. 1.5–2 cm best matches this standard.
How often should nitroglycerin (NTG) be given?
- 5 minutes
- 10 minutes
- 20 minutes
- 15 minutes
Explanation: Answer reason: For acute angina, sublingual nitroglycerin is administered every 5 minutes, up to three doses, with reassessment if pain persists.
What is the primary reason for rotating injection sites in patients who require frequent subcutaneous injections?
- To prevent needle fatigue
- To enhance patient comfort.
- To ensure consistent absorption of medication
- To decrease the likelihood of psychological stress and to document site use
Explanation: Answer reason: Rotating subcutaneous injection sites prevents lipodystrophy and tissue changes that alter drug uptake, helping to maintain predictable and consistent medication absorption (e.g., insulin).
A client with diabetes is prescribed regular insulin and NPH insulin. What is the appropriate nursing action when administering these insulins?
- Administer them in separate syringes.
- Mix them in the same syringe.
- Administer the regular insulin first.
- Administer the NPH insulin first.
Explanation: Answer reason: When preparing regular (clear) and NPH (cloudy) insulin together, the correct sequence is to draw up and give the regular insulin first to avoid contaminating it with NPH, ensuring accurate dosing and predictable action.
The nurse is discharging a client with a prescription for eye drops. Which observation by the nurse would indicate a need for further client teaching?
- Shaking the suspension to mix the medication
- Administering a second eyedrop medication immediately after the first one was instilled.
- Wash your hands before and after administering the drops.
- Hold the lower lid down without pressing on the eyeball to instill the drops.
Explanation: Answer reason: Different ophthalmic drops should be spaced several minutes apart (typically about 5 minutes) to avoid washout and to ensure absorption. Giving a second drop immediately after the first is incorrect and indicates a need for further teaching.
The nurse prepares to give a one-year-old child an intramuscular injection. The best site for this injection would be in the?
- Deltoid muscle
- Ventrogluteal muscle
- Dorsogluteal muscle
- Vastus lateralis muscle
Explanation: Answer reason: For infants around 1 year old, the preferred IM site is the vastus lateralis on the lateral thigh because it is well developed and away from major nerves and blood vessels. The deltoid is underdeveloped, and the dorsogluteal site risks sciatic nerve injury; the ventrogluteal site is acceptable, but the vastus lateralis is the best choice for this age.
Which is true regarding the administration of antacids?
- Antacids should be administered without regard to mealtimes.
- Antacids should be administered with each meal and snack of the day.
- Antacids should not be administered with other medications.
- Antacids should be administered with all other medications for maximal absorption.
Explanation: Answer reason: Antacids change gastric pH and can bind many drugs, reducing their absorption. They should be given separately from other medications, typically by at least 1 to 2 hours.
The nurse is caring for a client with active tuberculosis who has a history of noncompliance. Which of the following actions by the nurse would represent appropriate care for this client?
- Instruct the client to wear a high-efficiency particulate air mask in public places.
- Ask a family member to supervise daily compliance.
- Schedule weekly clinic visits for the client.
- Ask the physician to change the regimen to fewer medications.
Explanation: Answer reason: For clients with TB who are nonadherent, directly observed therapy improves adherence. Engaging a family member to supervise daily medication intake is appropriate. The other options do not ensure adherence or constitute inappropriate changes to therapy.
The nurse is performing an intramuscular injection using the Z-track method. Which technique would the nurse use to prevent tracking of the medication?
- Inject the medication into the deltoid muscle.
- Use a 22-gauge needle.
- Omit aspirating for blood before injecting.
- Draw up 0.2 mL of air after the proper medication dose.
Explanation: Answer reason: The Z-track technique uses a small air lock after medication to prevent tracking of the drug through subcutaneous tissue.
To enhance the percutaneous absorption of nitroglycerin ointment, it would be most important for the nurse to select a site that is?
- Muscular.
- Near the heart.
- Non-hairy.
- Over a bony prominence.
Explanation: Answer reason: Transdermal absorption is improved on clean, dry, hairless skin where the medication has full contact with the intact epidermis. Hair impedes contact and dosing; proximity to the heart, muscular tissue, or bony prominences does not enhance absorption and may reduce comfort or perfusion.
All of the following interventions are appropriate for administering potassium chloride except?
- Obtaining a controlled intravenous infusion pump.
- Monitor urine output during administration.
- Preparing the medication for bolus administration.
- Dilute the medication in an appropriate amount of normal saline.
Explanation: Answer reason: Potassium chloride must never be given IV push/bolus due to the risk of fatal hyperkalemia. It should be diluted, infused via a pump, and urine output should be monitored.
The client has an order for FeSO4 liquid. Which method of administration would be best?
- Administer the medication with milk.
- Administer the medication with a meal
- Administer the medication with orange juice.
- Administer the medication undiluted.
Explanation: Answer reason: Vitamin C (orange juice) increases the absorption of oral iron. Milk and food decrease the absorption, and giving liquid iron undiluted can stain teeth.
The physician has ordered Dilantin (phenytoin) 100 mg intravenously for a client with generalized tonic-clonic seizures. The nurse should administer the medication?
- Rapidly, with an IV push
- With IV dextrose.
- Slowly, over 2–3 minutes.
- Through a small vein.
Explanation: Answer reason: IV phenytoin must be administered slowly, not exceeding 50 mg/min, to avoid hypotension and dysrhythmias. It should not be mixed with dextrose and is best administered via a larger vein. For 100 mg, 2–3 minutes is the safe rate.
The nurse is preparing a client for discharge following inpatient treatment for pulmonary tuberculosis. The nurse should instruct the client to?
- Continue using medication as prescribed until symptoms are relieved.
- Continue taking medication as prescribed.
- Avoid contact with children, pregnant women, or immunocompromised persons
- Take medication with Amphogel if epigastric distress occurs.
Explanation: Answer reason: Clients with TB must complete the full prescribed drug regimen, even when symptoms improve, to prevent treatment failure and drug-resistant TB. Antacids like Amphogel reduce isoniazid absorption, and routine isolation from children or pregnant people is not the primary discharge instruction once therapy is initiated.
A client has been prescribed amitriptyline for depression. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
- Take the medication in the morning to avoid insomnia.
- Avoid foods containing tyramine.Avoid foods containing tyramine.
- Take the medication at bedtime due to its sedative effects.
- Stop the medication when symptoms improve.
Explanation: Answer reason: Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant with significant sedative effects and is typically administered at bedtime to minimize daytime drowsiness and improve sleep. Morning administration may increase the risk of sedation and impaired functioning during the day. Tyramine restrictions apply to MAOIs, not tricyclic antidepressants, and the medication does not require administration with dairy products or on an empty stomach.
A client is receiving an IV antibiotic infusion and is scheduled to have blood drawn at 1:00 p.m. for a "peak" antibiotic level measurement. The nurse notes that the IV infusion is running behind schedule and will not be completed by 1:00 p.m. The nurse should?
- Notify the client's physician.
- Stop the infusion at 1:00 p.m.
- Reschedule the laboratory test.
- Increase the infusion rate
Explanation: Answer reason: Peak antibiotic levels are drawn at a precise time after the infusion is completed. Because the infusion is delayed, drawing at 1:00 would yield an invalid level. The appropriate action is to reschedule the lab time; do not stop or speed up the infusion, and physician notification is not required for this routine adjustment.
The client with preeclampsia is admitted to the unit with an order for IV magnesium sulfate. Which action by the nurse indicates a lack of understanding of magnesium sulfate?
- The nurse places a sign over the bed not to check blood pressure in the left arm.
- The nurse obtains an IV controller.
- The nurse inserts a Foley catheter.
- The nurse darkens the room.
Explanation: Answer reason: For magnesium sulfate in preeclampsia, use an infusion pump, maintain a quiet, dark environment, and monitor urine output with a Foley to prevent toxicity. There is no reason to avoid BP checks in one arm; frequent BP monitoring is required. Thus, placing a sign not to check BP in the left arm shows a misunderstanding.
What gauge needle is used for intradermal injections?
- 36-38 gauge
- 20-25 gauge
- 25–27 gauge
- 27–30 gauge
Explanation: Answer reason: Intradermal injections (e.g., TB testing) use very fine needles, typically 25–27-gauge, to form a small bleb in the dermis. 20–25-gauge needles are used for IM injections, and 27–30-gauge needles are more typical for subcutaneous insulin injections.
What is the maximum amount of an intramuscular (IM) injection that can be administered?
- 3 mL
- 7 to 10 mL C
- 5 mL
- 6 mL
Explanation: Answer reason: For adults, the typical maximum volume per IM injection site is 3 mL to ensure proper absorption and minimize tissue injury. Larger volumes (5 mL or more) are not standard and increase the risk of complications.
When giving ear drops to a 4-year-old child, the ear pinna should be pulled?
- Downward and backward
- Upward and backward
- Upward and forward
- Downward and forward
Explanation: Answer reason: For children 3 years of age and older, the auricle is pulled up and back to straighten the ear canal for otic medication.
As a knowledgeable nurse, you know that the following are part of the five rights, except?
- Right dose
- Right route.
- Right drug.
- Right room
Explanation: Answer reason: The five rights of medication administration are right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, and right time; "right room" is not one of them.
The volume of SC medication must be no more than?
- 0.5 mL
- 1.0 mL
- 1.5 mL
- 3.0 mL
Explanation: Answer reason: For subcutaneous injections, the recommended maximum volume is 1 mL to prevent tissue distension and ensure proper absorption.
The physician has prescribed Nexium (esomeprazole) for a client with erosive gastritis. The nurse should administer the medication?
- 30 minutes before a meal.
- With each meal
- In a single dose at bedtime.
- 30 minutes after meals.
Explanation: Answer reason: Esomeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, is most effective when taken before meals so the pumps are active with food; taking it about 30 minutes before a meal optimizes acid suppression in erosive gastritis.
What distance should the dropper be from the nose during instillation of nasal drops?
- 0.5-1 cm
- 1-2 cm
- 2–3 cm
- 3-4 cm
Explanation: Answer reason: For nasal drops, the dropper is held about 1 cm above the nares to avoid contamination and deliver accurate drops; the closest option is 0.5–1 cm.
Abbreviation 'A.C.' means?
- At night
- Before a meal
- After a meal
- Any time
Explanation: Answer reason: It stands for ante cibum, meaning before meals; it is used for medication timing. After meals is P.C., and at night is h.s.
The nurse is administering a Mantoux test. Which is part of the correct technique for administering this test?
- Administer IM into the deltoid muscle.
- Deposit the PPD subcutaneously in the upper arm.
- Deposit the PPD subcutaneously with the needle bevel up.
- Give the test subcutaneously on the inner aspect of the forearm using a 1 1/2-inch needle.
Explanation: Answer reason: Mantoux (tuberculin) testing is administered intradermally on the forearm using a small needle with the bevel up to raise a wheal. Among the choices, the only element that reflects the correct technique is keeping the needle bevel up; the other options specify incorrect routes or needle lengths.
A client experienced a major burn over 55% of his body 36 hours ago. The client is restless and anxious and states, "I am in pain." There is a physician's prescription for intravenous morphine. The nurse's first action would be to?
- Administer the morphine.
- Assess respirations.
- Assess urine output.
- Check serum potassium levels
Explanation: Answer reason: Before administering IV morphine, the nurse must assess respiratory status due to the risk of opioid-induced respiratory depression. Ensuring adequate respirations is the immediate safety priority.
The nurse is caring for a COPD client who is discharged on PO theophylline. Which of the following statements by the client would indicate a correct understanding of discharge instructions?
- A slow, regular pulse could be a side effect.
- Take the pill with an antacid or with milk and crackers.
- The doctor might order it intravenously if symptoms worsen.
- Hold the drug if the symptoms decrease.
Explanation: Answer reason: Oral theophylline can cause GI irritation and is commonly taken with food or milk to lessen upset. It does not cause a slow pulse (it can cause tachycardia), should not be withheld when symptoms improve, and IV therapy is not part of routine home instructions.
What is characteristic of the intramuscular route of drug administration?
- Only water solutions can be injected.
- Oily solutions can be injected.
- Opportunity for hypertonic solution injections
- The action develops more slowly than with oral administration.
Explanation: Answer reason: IM injections can deliver aqueous and oily/depot preparations; onset is typically faster than oral administration, and IM is not limited to water-based or hypertonic solutions.
At what angle should an intradermal injection be given?
- 45° angle
- 15° angle
- 30° angle
- 90° angle
Explanation: Answer reason: Intradermal injections are inserted with the bevel up at a shallow angle of about 5–15 degrees; 15° is the best option provided.
Before administering a client's morning dose of Lanoxin (digoxin), the nurse checks the apical pulse and finds a rate of 54. The appropriate nursing intervention is to?
- Record the pulse rate and administer the medication.
- Administer the medication and monitor the heart rate.
- Withhold the medication and notify the doctor.
- Withhold the medication until the heart rate increases
Explanation: Answer reason: Hold digoxin when the adult apical pulse is below 60 bpm due to risk of bradycardia/toxicity and notify the provider for further orders.
Which intramuscular injection method?
- 90°
- 45°
- 60°
- 95°
Explanation: Answer reason: Intramuscular injections are inserted perpendicular to the skin into muscle at a 90° angle; 45° is typical for subcutaneous injections.
The nurse administers an intradermal injection to a client. Proper technique has been used if the injection site demonstrates which of the following?
- Minimal leakage.
- No swelling.
- Tissue pallor.
- Evidence of a bleb or wheal.
Explanation: Answer reason: Correct intradermal injections deposit medication within the dermis and produce a small bleb or wheal at the site; absence of swelling, pallor, or focus on leakage does not confirm proper technique.
Oral hormonal contraceptives should be commenced from?
- 10th day of menstruation.
- First day of menstruation
- 5th day of menstruation.
- 6th day of menstruation
Explanation: Answer reason: Traditional regimen for combined oral contraceptive pills is to start on the 5th day of menstruation to ensure the client is not pregnant and to establish contraceptive protection.
What diluent is used for BCG?
- Dextrose solution
- Normal Saline
- Ringer's lactate
- Distilled water
Explanation: Answer reason: BCG vaccine (freeze-dried) is reconstituted with sterile 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline); other diluents like dextrose, Ringer lactate, or distilled water are not appropriate.
Maximum dose for the IM route?
- 6 mL
- 10 mL
- 2 mL
- 5 mL
Explanation: Answer reason: For adults, the maximum recommended volume for a single intramuscular injection in a large muscle is up to 5 mL.
An external insulin pump is prescribed for a client with diabetes mellitus. When the client asks the nurse about the pump's functioning, the nurse bases the response on which information about the pump?
- It is timed to release programmed doses of either short-duration insulin or NPH insulin into the bloodstream at specific intervals.
- It continuously infuses small amounts of NPH insulin into the bloodstream while regularly monitoring blood glucose levels.
- It is surgically attached to the pancreas and infuses regular insulin into it. This releases insulin into the bloodstream.
- It administers a small, continuous dose of short-duration insulin subcutaneously. The client can self-administer an additional bolus dose from the pump before each meal.
Explanation: Answer reason: External insulin pumps deliver a continuous basal infusion of rapid/short-acting insulin subcutaneously, with patient-initiated bolus doses before meals. They are not NPH-based, do not attach to the pancreas, and do not inherently monitor glucose.
A vaccine can be stored at a subcentre for?
- 1 day
- 7 days
- 15 days
- 30 days
Explanation: Answer reason: At subcentres, vaccines should not be stored overnight; they are kept in a vaccine carrier only for the immunization session and must be returned the same day, i.e., within 24 hours.
The dose of vitamin K in a premature baby is?
- 0.5 mg
- 1 mg
- 1.5 mg
- 2 mg
Explanation: Answer reason: Standard neonatal prophylaxis: preterm/low-birth-weight infants receive 0.5 mg vitamin K IM at birth; term infants receive 1 mg.
The physician orders the patient to start taking omalizumab. As the nurse, how will you administer this medication?
- Intravenous
- Intramuscular
- Orally
- Subcutaneously
Explanation: Answer reason: Omalizumab (Xolair) is an anti-IgE monoclonal antibody administered only by subcutaneous injection at intervals; it is not given IV, IM, or orally.
A 2-year-old patient with cystic fibrosis is scheduled to take pancrelipase. How will you administer this medication?
- Orally, with yogurt.
- Orally, with pudding.
- Orally with applesauce.
- Orally, with ice cream
Explanation: Answer reason: Pancrelipase capsules may be opened and the contents sprinkled on a small amount of acidic soft food (pH ≤4.5) such as applesauce; avoid mixing with milk or dairy products like yogurt, pudding, or ice cream because higher pH can inactivate the enteric-coated enzymes.
The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client with asthma. Which teaching point has the highest priority?
- Avoid contact with fur-bearing animals.
- Change the filters on heating and air-conditioning units frequently.
- Take prescribed medications as scheduled.
- Avoid goose-down pillows.
Explanation: Answer reason: While trigger avoidance is important, ensuring adherence to prescribed asthma medications most directly prevents bronchoconstriction and inflammation, making it the highest priority teaching point.
A patient with asthma is prescribed inhaled salmeterol and fluticasone for long-term management of asthma. You observe the patient taking these medications. Which option below best describes the correct order in which to take these medications?
- The patient inhales the salmeterol first, then waits 5 minutes before inhaling the fluticasone.
- The patient inhales the fluticasone first, then waits five minutes before inhaling the salmeterol.
- The patient inhales the salmeterol first, then waits one minute before inhaling the fluticasone.
- The patient inhales fluticasone and immediately inhales salmeterol.
Explanation: Answer reason: Salmeterol is a long-acting bronchodilator and should be inhaled first to dilate the airways. Waiting a few minutes allows better airway opening so the inhaled corticosteroid (fluticasone) that follows can deposit more effectively in the bronchial tree, maximizing its anti-inflammatory effect.
Think you’re ready for the NCLEX?
Run through a full 150-question exam just like the real thing. You’ll hit the 85-question checkpoint and get a clear report showing where you stand.
