Question 1

Most frequently used medicine for AIDS is ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This drug inhibits reverse transcriptase after intracellular phosphorylation, reducing viral DNA synthesis and viral load. The other options are not standard antiretroviral drugs for treating HIV/AIDS (one is an analgesic brand and another is a spermicide), making them inappropriate for the stem. Therefore, the most appropriate choice among the listed options is the NRTI used in HIV treatment.

Question 2

Which of the following medications is not typically recommended for the elderly population?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Older adults have increased susceptibility to CNS adverse effects and clinically significant drug–drug interactions due to physiologic changes and polypharmacy risk. This medication is a histamine-2 receptor antagonist that can cause confusion/delirium and is a strong inhibitor of multiple CYP450 enzymes, making interactions more likely. Because safer alternatives exist (e.g., other H2 blockers or PPIs when appropriate), it is commonly avoided or used cautiously in geriatric prescribing guidance. In contrast, second-generation antihistamines like fexofenadine and loratadine are generally preferred in older adults because they have minimal anticholinergic and sedating effects compared with first-generation agents.

Question 3

You are caring for a 65-year-old man who complains of frequent headaches. He has a long history of angina and coronary artery disease. He has been diagnosed with migraines in the past. The best medication for headache relief in this patient is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Triptans (e.g., sumatriptan) and ergot derivatives (e.g., ergotamine) are therefore contraindicated or strongly cautioned in established CAD due to their 5-HT1–mediated vasoconstrictive effects. For nonspecific headache pain relief when vasoconstrictors are unsafe, a non-vasoconstrictive analgesic is preferred. Compared with NSAIDs, acetaminophen avoids additional cardiovascular and gastrointestinal risks associated with chronic NSAID use, making it the safest choice among the listed options for this patient.

Question 4

A nurse is preparing to administer regular insulin, 10 units SQ, before mealtime. How long before mealtime should the nurse administer the insulin?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Administering it too close to the meal risks postprandial hyperglycemia because insulin has not started working yet. Administering it too early increases the risk of hypoglycemia if the meal is delayed or intake is inadequate. This timing is a standard pharmacokinetic-based nursing administration principle for short-acting insulin.

Question 5

A patient with Parkinson's disease is switched from levodopa to ropinirole. The nurse should be alert for which side effect unique to ropinirole?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ropinirole (a non-ergot dopamine agonist) has this characteristic risk, making it a comparatively distinctive adverse effect to monitor when switching from levodopa. Postural hypotension and psychosis can occur with multiple dopaminergic therapies, including levodopa, so they are not uniquely associated with this medication. Dry mouth is more typical of anticholinergic antiparkinsonian agents rather than dopamine agonists.

Question 6

During labor induction with oxytocin, the nurse knows that relaxation of vascular smooth muscle can cause?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Relaxation of vascular smooth muscle produces peripheral vasodilation, which lowers systemic vascular resistance and can reduce blood pressure. The same vasodilation increases cutaneous blood flow, leading to warmth and flushing. With oxytocin administration, this vasodilatory effect is a recognized adverse hemodynamic response, especially with rapid infusion or bolus dosing. Options involving hypertension contradict the expected physiologic consequence of smooth muscle relaxation, and hyperglycemia is not a direct effect of vascular vasodilation.

Question 7

A 65-year-old client newly diagnosed with diabetes is ordered 10 units of insulin glargine (Lantus) at bedtime and 10 units of insulin lispro (Humalog) before meals. In your teaching to the client, when would you expect that she may experience symptoms of hypoglycemia if she takes her morning insulin at 0700?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A 0700 pre-meal dose would therefore most likely cause hypoglycemic symptoms later in the morning. Long-acting glargine has no pronounced peak, so it is less likely to cause a predictable time-linked hypoglycemia event. “During the night” would be more consistent with a peaking intermediate insulin or excessive bedtime dosing rather than lispro taken at 0700.

Question 8

Red cell aplasia can be caused by? (NEET)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A classic drug-associated cause is chloramphenicol, which can produce serious marrow toxicity (including aplastic anemia and related erythroid suppression) through mitochondrial protein synthesis inhibition. This adverse effect is emphasized as a high-yield hematologic toxicity compared with the other listed antibiotics. Penicillins are more associated with immune hemolytic anemia, aminoglycosides with nephro/ototoxicity, and ciprofloxacin more with tendinopathy and QT effects rather than isolated erythroid aplasia.

Question 9

Which analgesic drug is often used to treat migraines?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Triptans (e.g., sumatriptan) are first-line migraine-specific agents that act as 5-HT1B/1D agonists to inhibit CGRP release and reduce meningeal vasodilation, improving headache and associated symptoms. NSAIDs and acetaminophen can help mild attacks but are not as migraine-specific and may be insufficient for moderate to severe episodes. Opioids are generally avoided due to limited efficacy for migraine, risk of medication-overuse headache, and dependence potential.

Question 10

Ibuprofen Ibuprofen is commonly used to treat which condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This produces analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects, making it a common choice for mild-to-moderate pain and inflammatory conditions (e.g., musculoskeletal pain, dysmenorrhea). It is not an antibiotic, so it does not treat bacterial infections. It also is not used as primary therapy for hypertension or anxiety, and NSAIDs can sometimes worsen blood pressure control in susceptible patients.

Question 11

A client with moderate Alzheimer disease is started on memantine. In evaluating the effectiveness of this medication, the registered nurse should assess the client for which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Effectiveness is assessed by improved day-to-day functioning and maintenance of independence rather than dramatic cognitive changes. It does not stop neurodegeneration, so expecting halted progression is unrealistic. Rapid cognitive improvement or disease reversal would indicate misunderstanding of the medication’s symptomatic, not curative, role.

Question 12

Which drug is a diuretic?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits the Na-K-2Cl cotransporter in the thick ascending limb, producing potent diuresis. Simvastatin is an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor used to lower LDL cholesterol, not a diuretic. Atenolol (beta-blocker) and lisinopril (ACE inhibitor) are antihypertensives but do not directly promote diuresis as their primary mechanism.

Question 13

Which drug is used in the treatment of hypertension during pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Methyldopa has a long history of use in pregnancy and is considered a safe option for chronic hypertension because it lowers BP via central alpha-2 agonism without known teratogenic renal effects. ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril are contraindicated due to fetal kidney injury, oligohydramnios, and neonatal renal failure risks. Atenolol is generally avoided because it has been associated with fetal growth restriction, and aspirin is not an antihypertensive (it may be used for preeclampsia prophylaxis at low dose).

Question 14

Most common diuretic used in HF?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This drug is widely used to relieve pulmonary congestion and peripheral edema, improving dyspnea and exercise tolerance. The other choices are not diuretics: one is a proton pump inhibitor, one is an antihyperglycemic, and one is an anticholinergic used for bradycardia. Key nursing monitoring includes urine output, daily weights, blood pressure, renal function, and electrolytes (especially potassium and magnesium) to prevent hypovolemia and arrhythmias.

Question 15

Which of the following is a broad-spectrum antibiotic?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone with strong gram-negative coverage and additional gram-positive activity, so it fits the definition of a broad-spectrum antibacterial agent. Aspirin and ibuprofen are NSAIDs used for pain, fever, and inflammation and have no antibacterial effect. Metformin is an antihyperglycemic for type 2 diabetes and is not an anti-infective medication.

Question 16

Which drug is used to treat gout?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase, decreasing uric acid production and is a first-line urate-lowering therapy for chronic gout management. Ibuprofen can relieve pain and inflammation during an acute flare but does not address the underlying hyperuricemia and is not the key disease-modifying option here. Aspirin can worsen hyperuricemia at low doses by reducing urate excretion, and paracetamol provides analgesia without meaningful anti-inflammatory or urate-lowering effects.

Question 17

Which drug is used as an anticoagulant?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Warfarin is an oral vitamin K antagonist that decreases synthesis of vitamin K–dependent clotting factors (II, VII, IX, X), making it a classic anticoagulant used for conditions like atrial fibrillation and venous thromboembolism prevention/treatment. Simvastatin is a lipid-lowering statin, not a clotting modifier. Ibuprofen and paracetamol are analgesic/antipyretic drugs; while NSAIDs can affect platelet function, they are not used as primary anticoagulants.

Question 18

Which drug is an antiepileptic?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Carbamazepine is a classic antiseizure medication that primarily works by blocking voltage-gated sodium channels, stabilizing hyperexcited neuronal membranes. Aspirin is an NSAID/antiplatelet agent, simvastatin is an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor for hyperlipidemia, and furosemide is a loop diuretic used for edema and hypertension. Therefore, only the first option matches the pharmacologic class asked in the stem.

Question 19

Which drug is used to treat chronic heart failure?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This medication is a nonselective beta-blocker with additional alpha-1 blockade, which lowers afterload and supports ventricular remodeling benefits in stable chronic HFrEF when titrated carefully. The other options treat different conditions (SSRI depression, type 2 diabetes, inflammatory/autoimmune disorders) and do not provide disease-modifying heart failure benefit. A key clinical caveat is that beta-blockers are started when the patient is euvolemic and not in acute decompensated failure, then up-titrated to target doses as tolerated.

Question 20

Which drug is a non-selective beta-blocker?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This choice fits because it is a classic first-generation agent that blocks both receptor subtypes. In contrast, atenolol is relatively beta-1 selective (cardioselective), while lisinopril and losartan are not beta-blockers at all (they are an ACE inhibitor and an ARB, respectively). Clinically, non-selective blockade can worsen bronchospasm in asthma/COPD due to beta-2 inhibition, which is a key distinguishing safety point.

Question 21

Which drug is a selective beta-1 blocker?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Bisoprolol is a cardioselective (beta-1 selective) beta-blocker commonly used in hypertension and heart failure. Propranolol is nonselective (beta-1 and beta-2), increasing risk of bronchospasm in susceptible patients. Carvedilol blocks beta receptors plus alpha-1 receptors, so it is not beta-1 selective.

Question 22

What is the primary side effect of metformin?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This risk rises in conditions that reduce metformin elimination or increase hypoxia (e.g., significant renal impairment, severe heart failure, sepsis), making it the key safety concern. Hypertension, bradycardia, and drowsiness are not characteristic primary effects of this medication and suggest other drug classes. Although GI upset is common in practice, it is not offered here, so the best answer among the options is the serious metabolic complication.

Question 23

Which drug is a thiazide diuretic?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The option that matches this class is hydrochlorothiazide. By contrast, furosemide and bumetanide are loop diuretics that act in the thick ascending limb, and spironolactone is a potassium-sparing aldosterone antagonist acting in the collecting duct. Recognizing diuretic classes by name and mechanism is essential for anticipating effects and adverse electrolyte changes.

Question 24

A 5-year-old child came to the emergency room with a broken arm. While the nurse was reviewing the child's medical record, she saw that the child was prescribed Doxepin (sinequan). Besides a broken arm, what medical condition does this child most likely have?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Among the options, a urinary symptom best aligns with this nonpsychiatric pediatric use rather than a primary psychotic disorder. Phobias and broader “neurosis” can be treated with antidepressants, but they are less specifically linked to doxepin in a 5-year-old compared with enuresis-related complaints. Schizophrenia is rare at this age and would not make doxepin a typical primary choice.

Question 25

Atenolol is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: These effects reduce cardiac output and suppress the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone pathway, making it appropriate for hypertension (and also commonly for angina/arrhythmias). Fever and common cold symptoms are not treated with beta-blockers. Asthma is not an indication and beta-blockers can worsen bronchospasm, so it is a poor and potentially unsafe choice compared with hypertension.

Question 26

A client with a diagnosis of Parkinson's disease is starting on levodopa (Dopar) medication. The nurse tells the client that he or she will start experiencing the anticipated results in?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Levodopa is a dopamine precursor used to improve parkinsonian motor symptoms, but full therapeutic benefit is typically not immediate because dose titration is often needed and central dopaminergic adaptation occurs over time. Patients may notice some symptom improvement earlier, yet the expected/anticipated results are classically taught to appear after about a few weeks of consistent therapy. A 1-week expectation is commonly too soon for stable, optimized benefit, while 4–6 weeks is longer than the usual timeframe emphasized for initial therapeutic response. Setting a 2–3 week expectation supports adherence and realistic symptom monitoring during early treatment.

Question 27

A patient presents to the emergency department with pinpoint pupils, poor attention, and slurred speech. Upon assessment of vitals, the patient is found to have a BP of 92/60 mmHg, HR 58, RR 14, and T 96.8 degrees F. Which substance is this patient’s intoxication most likely related to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The accompanying CNS depression (poor attention, slurred speech) and bradycardia/hypotension are also consistent with opioid-related decreased sympathetic tone. Mild hypothermia can be seen with CNS depressant overdoses due to reduced metabolic activity and impaired thermoregulation. Cocaine would more typically produce mydriasis, tachycardia, hypertension, and hyperthermia, making it an important contrast distractor.

Question 28

Rifapentine tablets is used for the treatment?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It is commonly used with other anti-TB drugs for active TB in selected cases and with isoniazid for latent TB infection (e.g., weekly 3HP regimen). Typhoid is treated with agents active against Salmonella (e.g., ceftriaxone, azithromycin) rather than rifamycins. Pneumonia and asthma are not primary indications for rifapentine, and asthma is not an infectious disease requiring antibiotics.

Question 29

Which of the following Drug is used for Deworming in children?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Albendazole is a broad-spectrum benzimidazole effective against common childhood worms such as Ascaris, hookworm, and pinworm (often with repeat dosing for reinfestation risk). Omeprazole and ranitidine are acid-suppressing drugs used for GERD/ulcer disease and have no anthelmintic activity. Paracetamol is an analgesic/antipyretic and does not eradicate parasites.

Question 30

What is the drug of choice for the treatment of uncomplicated gonorrhea?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This option directly targets gonococcal cell wall synthesis and is recommended as standard empiric coverage. Fluoroquinolones like ciprofloxacin are no longer reliable in many regions because of high resistance rates. Azithromycin and doxycycline primarily address possible co-infection with Chlamydia trachomatis rather than serving as preferred monotherapy for gonorrhea.

Question 31

What type of drug is used to prevent blood clot formation?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This directly describes anticoagulants such as heparin, warfarin, and direct oral anticoagulants, which are used for prophylaxis and treatment of venous thromboembolism and related conditions. Antibiotics target bacteria and do not prevent thrombosis. Analgesics primarily relieve pain and, aside from some antiplatelet effects of specific agents like aspirin, are not the general drug class used to prevent blood clots.

Question 32

Statins is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This decreases LDL levels and reduces atherosclerotic cardiovascular risk, which is their primary clinical use. They do not treat hemoglobin problems (e.g., anemia), do not increase platelet counts or directly manage thrombocytopenia, and are not used to correct calcium disorders. A common test-taking pitfall is confusing lipid-lowering therapy with hematologic or electrolyte targets; the key association for statins is LDL reduction.

Question 33

Which of the following drugs is used to treat peptic ulcers?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Proton pump inhibitors irreversibly inhibit the H+/K+ ATPase in parietal cells, producing the strongest reduction in gastric acid secretion. This directly supports ulcer healing and is also a key component of H. pylori eradication regimens when combined with antibiotics. In contrast, aspirin (an NSAID) can precipitate or worsen peptic ulcers by impairing prostaglandin-mediated mucosal protection and increasing bleeding risk.

Question 34

What is the primary use of naloxone?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This makes it the first-line antidote in suspected opioid overdose, especially when hypoventilation or apnea is present. Its relatively short duration compared with many opioids means patients may require repeat dosing and close monitoring for re-sedation. It does not treat asthma, seizures, or osteoporosis; those conditions require different pharmacologic mechanisms and targets.

Question 35

What is the primary side effect of loop diuretics?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The increased sodium reaching the collecting tubule promotes potassium secretion (via aldosterone effect and sodium reabsorption), making potassium loss a common and clinically important adverse effect. This can lead to muscle weakness and dangerous dysrhythmias, so potassium and ECG monitoring are key in practice. Hypernatremia is unlikely because these agents generally increase sodium excretion, and they lower rather than raise blood pressure; drowsiness is not a primary class effect.

Question 36

Which drug is classified as an opioid analgesic?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Morphine is a prototypical strong opioid and is specifically classified in the opioid analgesic drug class. Paracetamol is a non-opioid analgesic/antipyretic, while aspirin and ibuprofen are NSAIDs that inhibit cyclooxygenase and reduce prostaglandin synthesis. Therefore, only the opioid option among the choices is the correct classification.

Question 37

What is the mechanism of action of lisinopril?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This also increases bradykinin levels, contributing to vasodilation and explaining hallmark adverse effects like cough and angioedema. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, so direct ACE inhibition is its defining mechanism. In contrast, blocking angiotensin II receptors describes ARBs (e.g., losartan), and beta-receptor blockade describes beta-blockers (e.g., metoprolol).

Question 38

Which drug is a H2 receptor antagonist?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Among the options, ranitidine is the classic H2 blocker in the “-tidine” drug family used for acid-related disorders. Omeprazole is instead a proton pump inhibitor that irreversibly inhibits the H+/K+ ATPase. Metoclopramide is a prokinetic/antiemetic (dopamine antagonist), and loperamide is an opioid agonist used for diarrhea rather than acid suppression.

Question 39

Kaun-sa first generation antihistamine hai?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Chlorpheniramine is a classic first-generation antihistamine used for allergic rhinitis/urticaria and is known for drowsiness and dry mouth/urinary retention risk. In contrast, cetirizine, loratadine, and fexofenadine are second-generation agents designed to be less sedating due to reduced CNS penetration. Therefore the only first-generation choice listed is the one with prominent central and antimuscarinic side effects.

Question 40

Which of the following is a common side effect of the medication Prednisone?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Over time they also promote fat redistribution and metabolic changes that contribute to increased body weight. This makes weight gain one of the most expected and commonly tested adverse effects of prednisone, especially with moderate-to-high dose or longer courses. Dry mouth is more typical of anticholinergic medications, not corticosteroids.

Question 41

What is the main therapeutic use of levothyroxine?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Replacing T4 restores normal metabolic activity and normalizes TSH over time, which is the therapeutic goal in primary hypothyroidism. It is not a treatment for diabetes, asthma, or hypertension, although excessive dosing can secondarily cause tachycardia and increased blood pressure. The key indication is long-term replacement therapy for thyroid hormone deficiency, typically taken daily with dose titration guided by TSH.

Question 42

The drug that causes the most severe phototoxicity is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Tetracyclines—especially doxycycline—are classic causes and can produce intense sunburn-like reactions even with brief sun exposure. In contrast, beta-lactams such as amoxicillin and cefalexin are more associated with allergic rashes rather than true phototoxicity. Macrolides like azithromycin are not typical high-risk phototoxic drugs compared with tetracyclines.

Question 43

Which of the following drugs is NOT classified as mood stabilizer?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Gabapentin is primarily an anticonvulsant/neuropathic pain agent and has not shown consistent efficacy for bipolar mood stabilization, so it is not classified as a mood stabilizer in core treatment lists. Valproic acid and carbamazepine are widely accepted mood-stabilizing anticonvulsants. Olanzapine is an atypical antipsychotic that can have mood-stabilizing/anti-manic indications, but the best single “not classified” choice here is gabapentin due to lack of established bipolar efficacy.

Question 44

What is the primary indication for propranolol?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: These effects make it a standard antihypertensive option (though not always first-line in all patients). It is not used to treat asthma; as a nonselective beta-blocker it can precipitate bronchospasm by blocking beta-2 receptors. It also is not a primary therapy for seizures or osteoporosis, which are managed with entirely different drug classes and mechanisms.

Question 45

Sodium nitroprusside is not given in ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Giving it at lower pressures risks precipitous hypotension with reduced coronary, cerebral, and renal perfusion. Clinically it is reserved for hypertensive emergencies and requires continuous BP monitoring (often arterial line) to titrate safely. Options suggesting higher BP thresholds reflect situations where rapid IV reduction may be indicated, whereas a BP under 150 does not justify this high-risk drug.

Question 46

A 5-year-old child came to the emergency room with a broken arm. While the nurse was reviewing the child's medical record, she saw that the child was prescribed Doxepin (Sinequan). Besides a broken arm, what medical condition does this child most likely have?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In a 5-year-old, a prescription for this medication more commonly points to a sleep-related elimination problem rather than a primary anxiety diagnosis. The other options are broad psychiatric labels and are not the most characteristic pediatric indication tied to this specific drug. Therefore the most likely associated condition is nighttime urination/enuresis reflected in nocturia.

Question 47

Which drug is a selective beta-1 blocker?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Atenolol is a classic β1-selective (cardioselective) blocker. Propranolol is nonselective (β1 and β2), and carvedilol blocks β receptors plus α1 receptors, so both are not purely β1-selective. Bisoprolol is also β1-selective, but when only one best option is required, atenolol is the most commonly cited prototypical selective β1 blocker.

Question 48

Which drug is used to treat opioid overdose?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A rapid-acting opioid antagonist reverses these effects by competitively displacing opioids from mu receptors, restoring ventilation and arousal. Methadone and buprenorphine are used mainly for opioid use disorder maintenance/withdrawal management, not acute reversal, and can still have opioid effects. Morphine is an opioid agonist and would worsen overdose physiology rather than treat it.

Question 49

Which drug is a proton pump inhibitor?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This mechanism is characteristic of the “-prazole” drugs, making this option the best match. Ranitidine is an H2-receptor antagonist (histamine blockade reduces acid but does not inhibit the proton pump), while metoclopramide is a prokinetic/antiemetic and loperamide is an antidiarrheal opioid agonist. Therefore, only this choice represents a true proton pump inhibitor.

Question 50

What is the mechanism of action of lidocaine?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Lidocaine binds preferentially to inactivated sodium channels (use-dependent blockade), which is especially effective in rapidly firing nerves. This blocks sensory transmission from the periphery to the CNS, producing loss of pain sensation in the targeted area. In contrast, cyclooxygenase inhibition is the mechanism of NSAIDs, not local anesthetics. The other options describe mechanisms of dopaminergic agents and SSRIs, which are unrelated to lidocaine’s anesthetic and antiarrhythmic effects.

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Most frequently used medicine for AIDS is ...?

Which of the following medications is not typically recommended for the elderly population?

You are caring for a 65-year-old man who complains of frequent headaches. He has a long history of angina and coronary artery disease. He has been diagnosed with migraines in the past. The best medication for headache relief in this patient is?

A nurse is preparing to administer regular insulin, 10 units SQ, before mealtime. How long before mealtime should the nurse administer the insulin?

A patient with Parkinson's disease is switched from levodopa to ropinirole. The nurse should be alert for which side effect unique to ropinirole?

During labor induction with oxytocin, the nurse knows that relaxation of vascular smooth muscle can cause?

Red cell aplasia can be caused by? (NEET)?

Which analgesic drug is often used to treat migraines?

Ibuprofen Ibuprofen is commonly used to treat which condition?

A client with moderate Alzheimer disease is started on memantine. In evaluating the effectiveness of this medication, the registered nurse should assess the client for which of the following?

Which drug is a diuretic?

Which drug is used in the treatment of hypertension during pregnancy?

Most common diuretic used in HF?

Which of the following is a broad-spectrum antibiotic?

Which drug is used to treat gout?

Which drug is used as an anticoagulant?

Which drug is an antiepileptic?

Which drug is used to treat chronic heart failure?

Which drug is a non-selective beta-blocker?

Which drug is a selective beta-1 blocker?

What is the primary side effect of metformin?

Which drug is a thiazide diuretic?

A 5-year-old child came to the emergency room with a broken arm. While the nurse was reviewing the child's medical record, she saw that the child was prescribed Doxepin (sinequan). Besides a broken arm, what medical condition does this child most likely have?

Atenolol is used for?

A client with a diagnosis of Parkinson's disease is starting on levodopa (Dopar) medication. The nurse tells the client that he or she will start experiencing the anticipated results in?

A patient presents to the emergency department with pinpoint pupils, poor attention, and slurred speech. Upon assessment of vitals, the patient is found to have a BP of 92/60 mmHg, HR 58, RR 14, and T 96.8 degrees F. Which substance is this patient’s intoxication most likely related to?

Rifapentine tablets is used for the treatment?

Which of the following Drug is used for Deworming in children?

What is the drug of choice for the treatment of uncomplicated gonorrhea?

What type of drug is used to prevent blood clot formation?

Statins is used for?

Which of the following drugs is used to treat peptic ulcers?

What is the primary use of naloxone?

What is the primary side effect of loop diuretics?

Which drug is classified as an opioid analgesic?

What is the mechanism of action of lisinopril?

Which drug is a H2 receptor antagonist?

Kaun-sa first generation antihistamine hai?

Which of the following is a common side effect of the medication Prednisone?

What is the main therapeutic use of levothyroxine?

The drug that causes the most severe phototoxicity is?

Which of the following drugs is NOT classified as mood stabilizer?

What is the primary indication for propranolol?

Sodium nitroprusside is not given in ...?

A 5-year-old child came to the emergency room with a broken arm. While the nurse was reviewing the child's medical record, she saw that the child was prescribed Doxepin (Sinequan). Besides a broken arm, what medical condition does this child most likely have?

Which drug is a selective beta-1 blocker?

Which drug is used to treat opioid overdose?

Which drug is a proton pump inhibitor?

What is the mechanism of action of lidocaine?

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