Question 1

Which of the following is the MOST COMMON sign of infection among the elderly?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Older adults often have atypical infection presentations due to immunosenescence and blunted inflammatory responses. They may not mount a significant fever and can show acute confusion, delirium, or functional decline as an early and common sign of infection (e.g., UTI, pneumonia, sepsis). Pain can be absent or underreported, and pulmonary findings like crackles are more specific to respiratory disease rather than a general, most common infection sign in the elderly.
Category reason: This question tests how infection manifests physiologically and clinically in older adults (atypical signs like delirium vs fever), which is primarily a disease presentation concept within Pathology rather than a nursing action or prioritization task.

Question 2

Which of the following is a sign of chorioamnionitis in labor?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Chorioamnionitis is an intra-amniotic infection that commonly presents with maternal fever and fetal tachycardia due to inflammatory and infectious stress. Fetal heart rate elevation is a key clinical clue during labor monitoring and can precede other findings. The other options are not typical: maternal hypothermia is opposite of expected, clear fluid does not suggest infection, and maternal bradycardia is not a common sign.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of clinical manifestations of an infectious obstetric condition (chorioamnionitis), which is primarily disease presentation and thus fits Pathology rather than a nursing intervention decision.

Question 3

A 24-year-old presents with carbon monoxide poisoning. Which of the following is most likely the source?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Carbon monoxide is generated when carbon-containing fuels burn without adequate oxygen, producing a colorless, odorless gas that binds hemoglobin with high affinity and causes tissue hypoxia. Common real-world sources include poorly vented stoves, heaters, fireplaces, and charcoal/wood/coal burning in enclosed or poorly ventilated spaces. Natural gas burning in an open area is less likely to accumulate to toxic levels, and overheated cooking oil does not produce significant CO. Refrigerant leakage typically causes asphyxiation/irritant effects rather than classic CO poisoning.
Category reason: This question tests the biomedical cause/source of carbon monoxide poisoning (mechanism related to combustion products and resultant hypoxic injury), which is foundational disease etiology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization task; therefore it fits Pathology.

Question 4

A client reports lower back pain and numbness after lifting heavy boxes. What condition is suspected?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Acute low back pain with numbness after heavy lifting is classic for disc herniation causing nerve root compression (radiculopathy). Increased intradiscal pressure during lifting can force nucleus pulposus material posteriorly, most often in the lumbar region, producing pain with neurologic symptoms in a dermatomal pattern. Kyphosis and lordosis are postural spinal curvature abnormalities and do not typically present suddenly after lifting with new numbness. Scoliosis-related sciatica is not the most likely acute precipitated cause compared with a lumbar disc herniation.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of the underlying disease process causing symptoms after mechanical strain (disc herniation and nerve root compression), which is primarily Pathology rather than nursing interventions or prioritization.

Question 5

A newborn develops jaundice within 12 hours of birth. What is the likely cause?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Jaundice appearing in the first 24 hours of life is pathologic and most commonly reflects hemolysis with rapid bilirubin production. Hemolytic disease of the newborn from maternal-fetal Rh incompatibility can cause significant hemolysis and very early hyperbilirubinemia. In contrast, physiologic jaundice typically begins after 24 hours (often peaks at 3–5 days), and breastfeeding-associated jaundice is usually later in onset. Early-onset jaundice requires prompt evaluation for hemolysis due to risks of severe hyperbilirubinemia and kernicterus.
Category reason: This question tests the underlying disease mechanism and timing of neonatal jaundice (pathologic early hemolysis vs physiologic patterns), which is primarily biomedical pathology rather than a nursing intervention decision.

Question 6

A nurse is teaching a patient with gout. Which food should the patient avoid?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: They are high in purines, which are metabolized into uric acid and can worsen hyperuricemia and trigger gout flares. Dietary counseling for gout emphasizes limiting high-purine foods such as certain meats and seafood while encouraging low-fat dairy, which may lower uric acid. The other listed foods are not major high-purine triggers compared with these meats.
Category reason: This question tests the disease mechanism and dietary contributors to gout via purine metabolism and uric acid production, which fits Pathology rather than nursing prioritization or interventions.

Question 7

.......... is an autoimmune disease in which there is an immune destruction of the acid and pepsin secreating cells of the stomach?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: c- pernicious anemia This condition results from autoimmune chronic atrophic gastritis targeting gastric parietal cells (and intrinsic factor), leading to loss of gastric acid secretion and impaired vitamin B12 absorption. The resulting B12 deficiency causes megaloblastic anemia and can also produce neurologic complications. The stem’s focus on immune destruction of acid-secreting stomach cells aligns directly with this mechanism; the other listed anemias are not defined by autoimmune parietal cell destruction.
Category reason: This question tests foundational disease mechanism (autoimmune destruction of gastric parietal cells causing a specific anemia), which is best classified under Pathology rather than a nursing intervention/judgment domain.

Question 8

Most common type of burn injury?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Thermal burns from hot liquids, flames, and contact with hot objects are the most frequently encountered burn mechanism in general populations. They occur commonly in household and occupational settings, especially scald injuries. Chemical and electrical burns are less common overall and are more situation-specific exposures. Inhalation injury is an associated airway injury pattern rather than the most common primary burn mechanism.

Question 9

A client is admitted with a Ewing's sarcoma. which symptoms would be expected due to this tumor's location?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ewing sarcoma is a primary malignant bone tumor that most commonly arises in the diaphysis of long bones or the pelvis, so localized skeletal symptoms predominate. Pain at the affected bone is the most typical presenting feature and reflects tumor expansion within bone and surrounding periosteal irritation. Neurologic deficits such as hemiplegia or aphasia would suggest central nervous system involvement rather than a bone-origin tumor. Nausea is nonspecific and would be more consistent with systemic illness or treatment effects than with tumor location in bone.

Question 10

The nurse is assessing the client who reports that setting and watching fires helps relieve anxiety. The client states, “After watch something burn, I feel so much better.” Which mental health disorder should the nurse associate with the client’s behavior?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pyromania is an impulse-control disorder characterized by deliberate, repeated fire-setting with tension or affective arousal before the act and relief or gratification afterward. The client specifically describes anxiety relief and feeling better after watching something burn, which matches the classic tension–release pattern. Kleptomania involves stealing to relieve tension rather than fire-setting. Conduct disorder and antisocial personality disorder may include fire-setting as part of broader rule-violating behavior, but they are defined by pervasive aggression/deceit/violation of others’ rights rather than a focused, anxiety-relieving preoccupation with fire.

Question 11

Which type of burn is painless ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Full-thickness (third-degree) burns destroy the epidermis and dermis, including cutaneous nerve endings responsible for pain sensation. Because these sensory receptors are damaged, the central area of the burn is typically painless despite the severe tissue injury. In contrast, first-degree and most second-degree (partial-thickness) burns preserve nerve endings and are usually very painful. Pain may still be present at the margins of a third-degree burn where partial-thickness injury remains.

Question 12

Which type of shock occurs in severe bleeding?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Severe bleeding causes acute loss of intravascular volume, which reduces venous return (preload) and lowers stroke volume and cardiac output, leading to tissue hypoperfusion. This mechanism defines hypovolemic shock, often presenting with tachycardia, hypotension, cool clammy skin, and narrowed pulse pressure. Cardiogenic shock is primarily pump failure (e.g., myocardial infarction) rather than volume loss. Septic and anaphylactic shock are distributive processes driven by vasodilation and capillary leak, not primarily hemorrhage.

Question 13

Seminoma is carcinoma of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It originates from primordial germ cells within seminiferous tubules and is one of the most common testicular cancers in young adult males. The other listed organs have distinct common carcinomas (e.g., urothelial carcinoma of the bladder, renal cell carcinoma of the kidney, squamous cell carcinoma of the penis) rather than seminoma. Therefore, the organ most directly associated with seminoma is the testes.

Question 14

Hepatitis is a?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: These viruses have characteristic transmission routes (fecal–oral for A/E; blood/body fluids for B/C/D) and primary hepatic tropism leading to hepatocellular injury. While noninfectious causes of hepatitis exist (e.g., alcohol, drugs, autoimmune), among the listed infectious categories the universally accepted primary cause is viral. Bacterial, protozoal, and fungal pathogens can involve the liver but are not the classic etiologic group termed “hepatitis” in MCQ context.

Question 15

Pseudofracture are characteristically seen in?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This is a classic feature of osteomalacia, most often due to vitamin D deficiency or impaired phosphate handling, leading to soft bones and bone pain. Osteoporosis primarily involves loss of bone mass with normally mineralized bone, so pseudofractures are not characteristic. Hyperparathyroidism and hyperthyroidism can cause increased bone resorption, but they do not classically produce Looser’s zones as a hallmark finding.

Question 16

Wilms tumor is affection the...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It classically presents in young children with an abdominal mass and may be associated with hematuria and hypertension due to renal involvement. The other options represent common sites of metastasis or unrelated tissues rather than the tumor’s primary origin. Recognizing the primary site is key for diagnosis, imaging focus, and surgical planning (nephrectomy with chemotherapy as indicated).

Question 17

Rigor mortis first seen in :-

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The muscles of the eyelids and jaw are small and typically cool faster, so they develop postmortem rigidity before larger muscle groups. The heart is cardiac muscle and is not used as the classic initial site for rigor mortis in forensic timelines. Distal large muscle groups such as the foot generally show rigidity later as the process spreads to larger muscles.

Question 18

Painless lock jaw :-

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dental and submandibular abscesses can cause trismus, but they typically present with prominent local pain, swelling, tenderness, fever, and signs of odontogenic or deep neck space infection. A painless onset of jaw stiffness should raise concern for neurotoxin-driven muscle rigidity rather than a focal suppurative process. Recognizing this pattern matters because tetanus requires urgent wound care, immunoglobulin, and antibiotic therapy plus supportive management of spasms and airway risk.

Question 19

A client with cancer is being evaluated for possible metastasis. Which of the following is one of the most common metastasis sites for cancer cells?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The liver is a major hematogenous “first-pass” organ (via portal and systemic circulation) and is therefore among the most common metastatic destinations for many solid tumors. The colon and reproductive tract are typically primary sites rather than universal metastatic targets across cancers. White blood cells are circulating cells rather than a typical anatomic site where solid tumors seed and establish metastases.

Question 20

Marfan syndrome is a disorder of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This makes it a systemic connective tissue disorder with prominent skeletal, ocular, and cardiovascular manifestations. The hallmark complications (e.g., aortic root dilation/dissection and lens subluxation) reflect weakened connective tissue integrity rather than primary neuronal or epithelial dysfunction. Options focused on nervous system tissue or the CNS do not explain the classic multi-organ structural fragility seen in this condition.

Question 21

Following a burn Injury the capillary permeability will?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This causes plasma proteins and fluid to leak into the interstitial space (“third spacing”), leading to edema and intravascular volume depletion with risk of hypovolemic shock early after major burns. The permeability change is a hallmark of the acute/resuscitation phase and underlies the need for aggressive fluid resuscitation. Options stating no change or decrease contradict the expected capillary leak physiology seen after significant burns.

Question 22

Which type of burn is painless ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pain is often felt at the periphery where partial-thickness tissue and nerves remain viable. First-degree burns are painful because nerve endings are intact and inflamed. Second-degree burns are typically very painful due to exposed/sensitized nerve endings and blistering.

Question 23

Common cause of ascites is ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Low serum albumin from severe protein deficiency reduces oncotic pressure, promoting third-spacing and edema/ascites. Dehydration typically concentrates intravascular volume rather than causing free peritoneal fluid accumulation. Appendicitis and bleeding disorders are not typical primary mechanisms for chronic ascites formation.

Question 24

One of the major complications due to mumps in young children is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A well-recognized major complication in children is aseptic meningitis, presenting with headache, neck stiffness, and photophobia. While orchitis can occur and is classically linked to fertility concerns, sterility is not the typical major complication emphasized for young children and is more associated with postpubertal males. Ear pain may occur from parotid swelling or otitis, but it is not considered a major complication compared with CNS involvement.

Question 25

Most painful type of burn is..?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Partial-thickness (second-degree) burns damage the epidermis and part of the dermis, leaving nociceptors viable but irritated and exposed, which typically produces severe pain. By contrast, full-thickness (third-degree) burns destroy dermal nerve endings at the center of the injury, often making the area relatively insensate initially (pain may be prominent at the edges). Fourth-degree injuries extend into deeper tissues and likewise are not usually the most painful at the core because nerves are destroyed.

Question 26

The Hallmark of tissue healing?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This appears clinically as beefy red, moist, bumpy tissue—granulation tissue—and reflects an active proliferative phase of healing. Exudation is an early inflammatory response and is not specific for successful healing. Granuloma and lymphocyte filtration describe chronic inflammatory patterns rather than normal wound repair.

Question 27

Commonest Complication of Mumps is ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Testicular involvement (orchitis), and less commonly ovarian involvement (oophoritis), occurs more often than severe cardiopulmonary complications. Central nervous system involvement can happen, but clinically significant encephalitis is less common than gonadal inflammation in typical exam framing. Pneumonia and myocarditis are recognized but are comparatively uncommon complications of mumps.

Question 28

Which of the following is not a common symptom of the depression?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Major depressive disorder is primarily defined by persistent low mood and/or anhedonia with neurovegetative and cognitive symptoms such as sleep disturbance, appetite change, low energy, and psychomotor changes. Insomnia, poor appetite, and lethargy are common depressive features and are part of typical diagnostic symptom clusters. Delusions are not common in uncomplicated depression and instead suggest psychotic depression (mood-congruent or mood-incongruent) or another primary psychotic disorder. Because psychotic features represent a specifier and not the usual presentation, this option best fits the “not common” request.

Question 29

Pyknosis is characterized by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This produces a small, dark (hyperchromatic/basophilic) nucleus on microscopy, reflecting DNA condensation rather than nuclear breakup. In contrast, nucleus disintegration refers to karyorrhexis (fragmentation) and subsequent karyolysis (fading/dissolution), which occur after pyknosis. Nucleolus disintegration is not the defining feature used to describe pyknosis in standard cell death morphology.

Question 30

Drainage of CSF via nose suggestive of................

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: g., cribriform plate). This is a hallmark sign of basilar skull fracture and implies a dural tear with risk of meningitis and intracranial infection. A simple nasal septal fracture typically causes epistaxis and deformity rather than clear CSF leakage. While temporal bone fractures can cause CSF otorrhea, CSF drainage via the nose points most strongly to a basilar skull fracture involving the skull base.

Question 31

The inflammation and degeneration of liver Parenchyma is referred as ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This term describes chronic diffuse liver damage affecting the parenchyma and architecture, not just a clinical sign. Jaundice is a manifestation of hyperbilirubinemia rather than a parenchymal inflammatory-degenerative diagnosis. Colitis and cystitis refer to inflammation of the colon and urinary bladder, respectively.

Question 32

The most common form of childhood brain tumor is ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This tumor typically presents as a low-grade lesion and often arises in the cerebellum or optic pathway, matching standard epidemiology tested in exams. Medulloblastoma is a classic malignant posterior fossa tumor in children but is not the most common overall. Ependymoma is also a notable pediatric tumor yet occurs less frequently than astrocytoma in most age-stratified series.

Question 33

The sudden onset of a disease is referred to as ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Sudden development of symptoms is the defining feature of acute illness, distinguishing it from long-standing processes. In contrast, chronic disease implies gradual onset and persistence over months to years. “Infectious” refers to etiology (caused by pathogens) and can be either acute or chronic, so it does not specifically mean sudden onset.

Question 34

When a patient is in liver failure, which of the following behavioural changes is the most important?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: New or increasing drowsiness, decreased alertness, and altered sleep-wake patterns are key warning signs that encephalopathy is developing or worsening and can rapidly progress to stupor/coma. This change is more clinically urgent than nonspecific systemic complaints because it signals impaired cerebral function and the need for prompt evaluation and treatment (e.g., precipitant search, lactulose/rifaximin). Symptoms like fatigue or nausea are common in many illnesses and are less specific for a life-threatening complication of liver failure.

Question 35

The nurse conducts a class on skin cancers at a local community center. The nurse explains the danger signs of malignant melanoma, which include which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Malignant melanoma classically presents with ABCDE warning signs, especially asymmetry, border irregularity, and color variation within the same lesion. An irregular surface/shape with multiple hues suggests atypical melanocytic proliferation and higher risk of invasive disease. A shiny, translucent lesion is more typical of basal cell carcinoma, not melanoma. A circumscribed fluid-filled lesion describes a vesicle/bulla, and a flat nonpalpable red lesion is more consistent with a macule/patch from inflammatory or vascular causes rather than melanoma.

Question 36

A 24-year-old female is admitted to the ER for confusion. This patient has a history of a myeloma diagnosis, constipation, intense abdominal pain, and polyuria. Based on the presenting signs and symptoms, which of the following would you most likely suspect?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The key principle is that hypercalcemia classically causes neurocognitive changes and decreased smooth-muscle excitability, leading to confusion and constipation. Multiple myeloma commonly produces hypercalcemia via osteolytic bone resorption, making this electrolyte abnormality especially likely in a patient with a myeloma history. Polyuria and abdominal pain also fit hypercalcemia due to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus-like effects and GI hypomotility/ileus. Hypocalcemia would more typically present with tetany, paresthesias, and hyperreflexia rather than constipation and polyuria. Diverticulosis and IBS do not explain the constellation of altered mental status plus polyuria in this context.

Question 37

A nurse prepares to care for a 4-year-old newly admitted for rhabdomyosarcoma. The nurse should alert the staff to pay more attention to the function of which area of the body?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This principle makes the broad category of striated muscle function the most directly relevant physiologic area to monitor. The kidneys are a key concern in rhabdomyolysis (muscle breakdown with myoglobinuria), which is a different condition and a common distractor due to the similar prefix. The cerebellum and leg bones are not primary tissues of origin for this sarcoma and are therefore less central to the disease’s expected functional impact.

Question 38

In following which is a primary feature of cervical cancer?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This makes menstrual irregularity a key early clinical feature that prompts pelvic examination and Pap/HPV evaluation. In contrast, polyuria, weight gain, and vomiting are nonspecific systemic symptoms and are not characteristic primary presentations of early cervical malignancy. While advanced disease can cause broader systemic effects, the hallmark initial complaint is abnormal bleeding/discharge rather than urinary frequency or gastrointestinal symptoms.

Question 39

Complications of chickenpox includes?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Secondary bacterial infection and varicella pneumonia are well-recognized serious complications, with pneumonia being a major cause of varicella-related morbidity in adults and pregnancy. Acute cerebellar ataxia is a classic post-varicella neurologic complication in children due to cerebellitis. Reye’s syndrome is a historically significant complication associated with aspirin exposure during viral illnesses such as varicella, leading to acute encephalopathy and hepatic dysfunction.

Question 40

Septic shock is caused by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It typically follows severe bacterial, fungal, or other microbial infection with resulting inflammatory mediator release and microcirculatory dysfunction. Bleeding and trauma more classically cause hypovolemic shock (loss of circulating volume), not septic shock. Allergy is associated with anaphylactic shock, another distributive shock type but distinct from sepsis-related shock.

Question 41

Sites of primary tuberculosis is .................?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Inoculation through the skin can produce primary cutaneous TB, and ingestion can lead to primary gastrointestinal TB (particularly involving intestinal/ileocecal sites). Because each listed site can serve as a primary focus depending on transmission route, the inclusive choice is the most accurate. The lung-only option is a common distractor because pulmonary TB predominates epidemiologically, but it is not the only possible primary site.

Question 42

Most serious complications of fracture ::

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Fat embolism syndrome is a life-threatening systemic complication classically associated with long-bone and pelvic fractures due to marrow fat entering the circulation. It can rapidly cause severe hypoxemia/ARDS, neurologic changes, and a petechial rash, leading to respiratory failure and shock. While bleeding is an important early risk (especially with pelvic/femur fractures), it is more an immediate trauma complication rather than the characteristic “most serious” systemic fracture complication tested in exams. Septicemia is typically a later complication related to open fractures or infection, and dehydration is not a defining serious fracture complication.

Question 43

A child who has recently been diagnosed with cystic fibrosis is in a pediatric clinic where a nurse is performing an assessment. Which later finding of this disease would the nurse not expect to see at this time?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Steatorrhea with bulky, greasy stools can occur as exocrine pancreatic function becomes impaired, and respiratory manifestations can include a chronic moist/productive cough as infections and bronchiectasis develop. A positive sweat test reflects abnormal chloride transport and is a diagnostic feature rather than a late complication. Meconium ileus, however, is a neonatal intestinal obstruction present at birth, so it would not be expected “at this time” in a child who is now being assessed after a recent diagnosis.

Question 44

In which fever pattern does the temperature remain high throughout the day with minimal fluctuation?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Continuous (sustained) fever remains above normal throughout the day with minimal diurnal variation (classically 1°C) but does not return to normal, and relapsing fever features febrile episodes separated by afebrile periods of days.

Question 45

A resident is ill with the following symptoms: fever, swelling, redness and chills. The resident most likely has __?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Localized swelling and redness are classic signs of acute inflammation, often driven by pathogen-triggered immune activation at a site of infection (e.g., cellulitis or an abscess). Food poisoning typically centers on gastrointestinal symptoms (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea) rather than prominent localized redness and swelling. Allergic reactions more often present with pruritus, urticaria, and possible wheeze or angioedema, and arthritis would not usually cause chills with a febrile illness unless secondary infection is involved.

Question 46

Which virus causes liver cancer?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hepatitis B is a well-established oncogenic virus for liver cancer, with risk increased by chronic infection and cirrhosis and also via viral DNA integration–related carcinogenesis. Papillomavirus is classically linked to cervical and other anogenital/oropharyngeal cancers rather than primary liver cancer. Herpes viruses and SV40 are not the standard, high-yield etiologic agents for hepatocellular carcinoma in clinical exams.

Question 47

Most important aspect of management of burn injury in first 24 hours is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In the first 24 hours, the life-threatening priority is restoring intravascular volume to maintain tissue perfusion, urine output, and prevent acute kidney injury and multi-organ dysfunction. Early aggressive IV fluids guided by weight and total body surface area (e.g., Parkland-type approaches) directly targets this pathophysiology. Routine prophylactic antibiotics are not indicated initially and do not address shock, while dressings and plastic surgery are important but secondary after hemodynamic stabilization.

Question 48

Commonest cause of cerebral infarction?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: g., carotid or intracranial vessels). This mechanism leads to arterial occlusion at the site of plaque rupture/ulceration and progressive narrowing, making thrombosis the most frequent overall cause. Embolism is also common but is typically the next most frequent mechanism and depends on cardiac or artery-to-artery sources rather than being the most common overall. Venous thrombi cause infarction only indirectly via paradoxical emboli and are not the typical primary cause, and aneurysm is primarily linked to hemorrhagic stroke rather than cerebral infarction.

Question 49

Septic shock mortality is due to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The ultimate mechanism of death is progressive multiple organ dysfunction as perfusion fails and cellular injury becomes irreversible. Hypotension is a key feature of shock but is a proximal hemodynamic problem that leads to organ failure rather than being the usual terminal cause by itself. Fever and pain are symptoms of infection/inflammation and do not directly account for mortality in septic shock.

Question 50

The nurse completes teaching with the client diagnosed with schizophreniform disorder. Which statement made by the client demonstrates an understanding of the disorder?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: ” Schizophreniform disorder is defined by schizophrenia-like symptoms (e.g., delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech/behavior, negative symptoms) with a shorter duration, so recognizing the similarity is accurate understanding. The key distinction is duration and course: schizophreniform lasts at least 1 month but less than 6 months, whereas schizophrenia persists for 6 months or more with functional decline. Prognosis is variable and not determined simply by “not getting worse,” and the diagnosis does not guarantee progression to schizophrenia. Functional impairment can occur, but it is not an inevitable outcome and is not the defining teaching point compared with the similarity and duration criteria.

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Which of the following is the MOST COMMON sign of infection among the elderly?

Which of the following is a sign of chorioamnionitis in labor?

A 24-year-old presents with carbon monoxide poisoning. Which of the following is most likely the source?

A client reports lower back pain and numbness after lifting heavy boxes. What condition is suspected?

A newborn develops jaundice within 12 hours of birth. What is the likely cause?

A nurse is teaching a patient with gout. Which food should the patient avoid?

.......... is an autoimmune disease in which there is an immune destruction of the acid and pepsin secreating cells of the stomach?

Most common type of burn injury?

A client is admitted with a Ewing's sarcoma. which symptoms would be expected due to this tumor's location?

The nurse is assessing the client who reports that setting and watching fires helps relieve anxiety. The client states, “After watch something burn, I feel so much better.” Which mental health disorder should the nurse associate with the client’s behavior?

Which type of burn is painless ?

Which type of shock occurs in severe bleeding?

Seminoma is carcinoma of?

Hepatitis is a?

Pseudofracture are characteristically seen in?

Wilms tumor is affection the...?

Rigor mortis first seen in :-

Painless lock jaw :-

A client with cancer is being evaluated for possible metastasis. Which of the following is one of the most common metastasis sites for cancer cells?

Marfan syndrome is a disorder of?

Following a burn Injury the capillary permeability will?

Which type of burn is painless ?

Common cause of ascites is ?

One of the major complications due to mumps in young children is?

Most painful type of burn is..?

The Hallmark of tissue healing?

Commonest Complication of Mumps is ?

Which of the following is not a common symptom of the depression?

Pyknosis is characterized by?

Drainage of CSF via nose suggestive of................

The inflammation and degeneration of liver Parenchyma is referred as ?

The most common form of childhood brain tumor is ?

The sudden onset of a disease is referred to as ?

When a patient is in liver failure, which of the following behavioural changes is the most important?

The nurse conducts a class on skin cancers at a local community center. The nurse explains the danger signs of malignant melanoma, which include which of the following?

A 24-year-old female is admitted to the ER for confusion. This patient has a history of a myeloma diagnosis, constipation, intense abdominal pain, and polyuria. Based on the presenting signs and symptoms, which of the following would you most likely suspect?

A nurse prepares to care for a 4-year-old newly admitted for rhabdomyosarcoma. The nurse should alert the staff to pay more attention to the function of which area of the body?

In following which is a primary feature of cervical cancer?

Complications of chickenpox includes?

Septic shock is caused by?

Sites of primary tuberculosis is .................?

Most serious complications of fracture ::

A child who has recently been diagnosed with cystic fibrosis is in a pediatric clinic where a nurse is performing an assessment. Which later finding of this disease would the nurse not expect to see at this time?

In which fever pattern does the temperature remain high throughout the day with minimal fluctuation?

A resident is ill with the following symptoms: fever, swelling, redness and chills. The resident most likely has __?

Which virus causes liver cancer?

Most important aspect of management of burn injury in first 24 hours is?

Commonest cause of cerebral infarction?

Septic shock mortality is due to?

The nurse completes teaching with the client diagnosed with schizophreniform disorder. Which statement made by the client demonstrates an understanding of the disorder?

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