Question 1

What is the diagnosis of a 2-month-old infant with feeding refusal, poor weight gain, hair resembling steel or wood, and low serum copper levels?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Low serum copper with kinky/steel-wool hair and failure to thrive in an infant is classic for Menkes disease (ATP7A copper transport defect). Other options involve different etiologies: De Vivo (GLUT1 deficiency), Keshan (selenium-related cardiomyopathy), Kashin-Beck (endemic osteoarthropathy).

Question 2

What does a cob-web appearance of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) indicate?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A spider-web/cobweb clot forms in CSF that is high in protein and fibrin seen classically in tuberculous meningitis when the CSF is allowed to stand.

Question 3

Typhoid fever is an example of which type of inflammation?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Typhoid fever produces typhoid nodules composed of aggregates of activated macrophages (mononuclear phagocytes), a granulomatous pattern of chronic inflammation.

Question 4

Which oral disorder appears as yellow or white spots on the oral mucosa that cannot be scraped off without bleeding?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Oral candidiasis (thrush) presents as white to yellow curd-like plaques that can be scraped off, leaving an erythematous surface that often bleeds. Leukoplakia forms white patches that typically cannot be scraped off. Herpes shows vesicles/ulcers, and aphthous ulcers are discrete ulcers, not scrapable plaques.

Question 5

Which type of schizophrenia is characterized by odd beliefs or unusual perceptions but no major hallucinations?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Residual schizophrenia features the absence of prominent positive symptoms; patients may have odd beliefs or unusual perceptual experiences without major hallucinations or delusions.

Question 6

What is the most common cause of cancer?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Chemical carcinogens (e.g., tobacco smoke and industrial chemicals) account for the largest proportion of cancers; infections such as oncoviruses represent a smaller fraction.

Question 7

Risk factors for liver cancer include all of the following except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hepatitis A does not cause chronic hepatitis and is not linked to hepatocellular carcinoma. Cirrhosis and smoking are associated risk factors, and other primary cancers commonly metastasize to the liver.

Question 8

Which of the following is a characteristic of benign tumors?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Benign tumors are typically well-differentiated and do not invade or metastasize; the other options describe malignant features.

Question 9

Which client problem relating to altered nutrition is a consequence of AIDS?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: HIV/AIDS commonly causes malabsorption due to HIV enteropathy and opportunistic GI infections, leading to global decreased intestinal absorption and wasting. Increased appetite or digestive secretions are not typical; while specific nutrient malabsorption (e.g., protein) can occur, the recognized consequence is generalized decreased GI absorption.

Question 10

An increase in the number of cells due to an increase in the frequency of cell division is called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells due to increased cell division. Atrophy is a decrease in cell size, hypertrophy is an increase in cell size without an increase in number, and dysphasia refers to a language disorder.

Question 11

John has a fever of 38.5 Deg. Celsius. It surges at around 40 Degrees and go back to 38.5 degrees 6 times today in a typical pattern. What kind of fever is John having?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Temperature fluctuates widely but remains above normal (38.5°C baseline with spikes to 40°C multiple times in a day), which defines remittent fever.

Question 12

Which of the following is a malignant tumor?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Sarcoma denotes a malignant tumor of mesenchymal origin; Kaposi's sarcoma is a malignant vascular neoplasm (HHV-8–associated). Neurofibroma is typically benign, gliomas vary by grade, and 'thyroid tumor' is nonspecific.

Question 13

The following are some of the effects of HIV infection in the mother on the pregnancy and health of the newborn, except……?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Maternal HIV is associated with adverse outcomes such as miscarriage, stillbirth, and increased neonatal mortality, typically with intrauterine growth restriction—not excessive growth.

Question 14

After death, does body weight increase, decrease, or remain the same?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Postmortem, the body gradually loses mass through evaporation, drying, and expulsion/leakage of fluids and gases, so weight decreases over time.

Question 15

Which stage of syphilis is characterized by a painless, draining ulcer called a chancre appearing several weeks after exposure?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Primary syphilis presents about 3 weeks after exposure with a painless indurated ulcer (chancre) at the inoculation site. Secondary causes rash/condylomata, latent is asymptomatic, tertiary has gummas/neuro/cardiac disease.

Question 16

After death, what happens to the body weight?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Postmortem dehydration and loss of body fluids during cooling and early decomposition lead to a net reduction in body weight.

Question 17

The nature of the disease process and its effect on normal body functioning is called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Etiology is the cause of disease, complications are resulting problems, and prognosis is the expected outcome. Pathogenesis describes how a disease develops and affects normal function.

Question 18

The parents of a child with cystic fibrosis ask what determines the prognosis of the disease. The nurse knows that the greatest determinant of the prognosis is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In cystic fibrosis, survival is most closely linked to the severity of pulmonary disease; respiratory involvement dictates prognosis. Nutritional status and pancreatic enzyme secretion are important but secondary, and the chloride channel defect explains pathogenesis, not prognosis.

Question 19

A client is admitted for suspected bladder cancer. Which one of the following factors is most significant in the client's diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cigarette smoking is the leading risk factor for bladder cancer; carcinogens are concentrated in urine and contact urothelium. Asbestos exposure is linked mainly to lung disease/mesothelioma, and NSAIDs or food preservatives are not major established risks.

Question 20

The autopsy results in SIDS-related death will show the following consistent findings?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Classic autopsy findings in SIDS are intrathoracic petechiae/hemorrhages and pulmonary edema; these are the most consistently reported postmortem features.

Question 21

Which finding is associated with secondary syphilis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Secondary syphilis presents with a diffuse maculopapular rash that characteristically involves the palms and soles and may include perineal lesions (condyloma lata).

Question 22

What is increased in Wilson disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Wilson disease is due to impaired copper excretion and decreased ceruloplasmin, leading to pathological accumulation of copper in tissues.

Question 23

What is the death of tissue often occurring in the extremities or skin from loss of blood supply called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Gangrene is tissue necrosis caused by ischemia from loss of blood supply, commonly affecting extremities or skin.

Question 24

What system(s) does snake venom attack in the human body?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Many snake venoms contain neurotoxins that impair neuromuscular transmission and hemotoxins that disrupt coagulation and damage blood vessels; thus they affect both the nervous system and blood.

Question 25

What is the 'bull's-eye' rash associated with?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The classic erythema migrans 'bull's-eye' rash is characteristic of Lyme disease caused by Borrelia burgdorferi from Ixodes tick bites; the other conditions do not typically produce this lesion.

Question 26

Obesity increases the risk of which condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Obesity is a major risk factor for hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and cardiovascular disease; therefore all listed conditions are increased by obesity.

Question 27

Which organs are commonly affected by malaria?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Among the listed options, the brain is a classically and commonly involved organ in severe malaria (cerebral malaria). Cardiac involvement is uncommon; lungs and kidneys can be affected but less commonly than cerebral involvement.

Question 28

What characterizes acute lethal catatonia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Malignant (lethal) catatonia is defined by severe rigidity with autonomic instability including hyperthermia and dehydration; other options are nonspecific or not defining.

Question 29

What is the term for stiffness in the body after death?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Postmortem muscular stiffening is called rigor mortis. Algor mortis is body cooling; livor (spelled here as libor) mortis is dependent lividity; Tardieu's spots are petechiae.

Question 30

What is the term for the development of a clot in a vein?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Formation of a clot within a vessel is thrombosis; when it occurs in a vein it is venous thrombosis. Vasculitis is vessel inflammation, spasm is sudden constriction, and stenosis is narrowing.

Question 31

A client has been hospitalized with a diagnosis of laryngeal cancer. Which factor is most significant in the development of laryngeal cancer?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Tobacco is the primary risk factor for laryngeal cancer and has a synergistic effect with heavy alcohol use, making combined alcohol and tobacco use the most significant contributor.

Question 32

Which finding is associated with Tay Sachs disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Tay-Sachs (GM2 gangliosidosis) characteristically presents with a cherry-red spot on the macula. The other findings correspond to anemia (pallor of conjunctiva), osteogenesis imperfecta (blue sclera), and Brushfield spots in Down syndrome (white flecks in iris).

Question 33

A newborn is diagnosed with congenital syphilis. Classic signs of congenital syphilis are?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Congenital syphilis typically presents with snuffles (rhinitis), a maculopapular rash often involving palms/soles, and hepatosplenomegaly. Option A reflects scarlet fever; C describes fifth disease; D lists Down syndrome features.

Question 34

What is another name for non-cancerous tumors?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Non-cancerous tumors are termed benign; malignant tumors are cancerous, while cystic and polyp describe morphology, not cancer status.

Question 35

After death, does body weight increase, decrease, or stay the same?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Postmortem dehydration and loss of fluids/gases during cooling and decomposition lead to a net reduction in body mass, so weight decreases over time.

Question 36

What is a common complication of untreated strep throat?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Untreated group A streptococcal pharyngitis can lead to autoimmune sequelae, notably acute rheumatic fever; the other options are not typical complications.

Question 37

Which mental disorder is characterized by a 'split of mind'?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Schizophrenia derives from Greek roots meaning 'split mind,' referring to a split between thought, emotion, and reality testing, not multiple personalities.

Question 38

What is the term for pulling out scalp hair by children?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hair-pulling disorder is trichotillomania. Kleptomania is compulsive stealing, a tic is an involuntary movement or sound, and echolalia is repeating words.

Question 39

Acinic cell carcinoma is related with which gland?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Acinic cell carcinoma is a malignant tumor showing serous acinar differentiation that most commonly arises in the salivary glands, especially the parotid.

Question 40

What is the most common type of brain neoplasm?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Gliomas, derived from glial cells (e.g., astrocytomas), constitute the majority of primary brain tumors, making them the most common brain neoplasms.

Question 41

The nurse is caring for a client with a malignancy. The classification of the primary tumor is Tis. The nurse should plan care for a tumor?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In TNM staging, Tis denotes carcinoma in situ. Tx means tumor cannot be assessed; N refers to lymph nodes; M refers to distant metastasis.

Question 42

Which disease presents with a bull's eye rash?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A bull's-eye rash (erythema migrans) is the classic early skin manifestation of Lyme disease.

Question 43

What is the ideal place to record body temperature in a dead body?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Postmortem core temperature is most accurately measured rectally; axilla, mouth, and groin are less reliable and more affected by ambient conditions.

Question 44

Which of the following is a symptom of thrombophlebitis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Thrombophlebitis (inflamed vein with clot) typically presents with localized tenderness over the affected vein, often with redness and warmth. Vertigo is unrelated, and while edema or leg pain can occur, tenderness is the classic hallmark.

Question 45

Decubitus ulcer is a type of what?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Decubitus ulcers are pressure-induced ischemic lesions that commonly become infected in a moist environment, producing tissue putrefaction characteristic of wet gangrene. Dry gangrene involves mummified distal extremities; liquefactive necrosis is typical of brain infarcts; coagulative necrosis is general ischemic necrosis but decubitus ulcers are classically categorized as wet gangrene.

Question 46

Which of the following is NOT part of the triad of cystic fibrosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The classic cystic fibrosis triad includes pancreatic enzyme deficiency, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and elevated sweat electrolytes. Fever is not part of this triad.

Question 47

Diabetic foot is a type of which gangrene?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Diabetic foot ulcers commonly develop infection superimposed on ischemic tissue, leading to moist, foul-smelling tissue characteristic of wet gangrene.

Question 48

In which heat-related condition is sweating not present?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Classic heat stroke presents with hot, dry skin due to failure of thermoregulation and anhidrosis; other heat illnesses usually have sweating.

Question 49

Which disease presents Nikolsky's sign?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Nikolsky sign—epidermal shearing with gentle pressure—is classically positive in pemphigus vulgaris due to acantholysis; it is not typical of psoriasis, comedones, or hemangiomas.

Question 50

Pulmonary Embolism is caused by which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pulmonary emboli can result from thrombi, fat emboli (e.g., after long-bone fracture), or air emboli; therefore all listed causes are correct.

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