Question 1

How much population is usually covered by community health center?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Standard public health norms state a Community Health Centre typically covers a population of about 80,000–1,20,000.

Question 2

Sheetal is newly diagnosed with asthma and is being discharged from the hospital after an episode of status asthmaticus. Discharge teaching should include which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Discharge education for asthma emphasizes recognizing and avoiding individual triggers and linking symptoms to triggers to prevent exacerbations. Statistics about incidence and imposing activity limits are not helpful; patients can usually participate in sports with proper control. Calmness advice alone is insufficient.

Question 3

IMNCI differs from IMCI in all excepts?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Both IMCI and IMNCI use an integrated approach that addresses multiple conditions simultaneously; they are not aimed at only one disease at a time. The other options describe differences in IMNCI (inclusion of malaria/anaemia, inclusion of 0–7 day infants, and prioritizing sick neonates).

Question 4

Which U.S. program provides comprehensive health screenings, vaccinations, vision and hearing checks, and developmental assessments for low-income children?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: EPSDT is a federal Medicaid program that ensures children and adolescents receive regular health screenings, immunizations, developmental assessments, and appropriate follow-up care. It is one of the most comprehensive preventive health initiatives for children in the United States.

Question 5

Which of the following is not a method of Health Promotion except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Behavioral/lifestyle modification and nutritional education are core health promotion strategies. Immunization is a form of specific protection (health protection) rather than health promotion.

Question 6

Checking for sputum AFB comes under-?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Sputum AFB testing is a screening/early detection activity for tuberculosis, which is classified as secondary prevention.

Question 7

Leprosy and tuberculosis are best prevented by-?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Transmission of both TB and leprosy is primarily reduced by finding infectious cases early and treating them effectively, which breaks the chain of infection. There is no broadly effective universal vaccine for leprosy, and routine chemoprophylaxis is not the main community strategy.

Question 8

What is the cause of high infant mortality rate?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Low birth weight/prematurity, vaccine-preventable infections (six killer diseases), and diarrheal illness are all major contributors to infant mortality; therefore, all of these are causes.

Question 9

A nurse is teaching a group of teenagers the correct technique for applying a condom. Which point would the nurse include in the teaching plan?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Correct condom use includes unrolling the condom to the base of the erect penis. Condoms are single-use, oil-based lubricants like petroleum jelly degrade latex, and the tip should be left empty (air squeezed out) rather than filled with water.

Question 10

Which statement by the parent of a preschool child with asthma indicates that further teaching is necessary regarding preventative care?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Vacuuming stirs up dust and allergens; the child should not be present during vacuuming. A mask is inadequate protection. The other statements reflect appropriate preventive measures (allergen-proof covers, changing clothes after outdoor exposure).

Question 11

Which behavior best indicates that a client has received adequate preparation for scheduled diagnostic tests?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Calm, punctual behavior shows understanding and reduced anxiety about procedures, indicating effective pre-test education. Repeated questioning or pacing suggests ongoing anxiety or incomplete teaching.

Question 12

Which of the following is NOT a data collection technique used in community assessment?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Data collection in community assessment relies on techniques like effective communication (e.g., interviews) and investigation/measurement. Making appropriate judgments is part of data interpretation and decision-making, not a data collection technique.

Question 13

What was the theme of the World Health Organization (WHO) in 2020 related to nurses and midwives?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: WHO designated 2020 as the International Year of the Nurse and the Midwife; World Health Day 2020 focused on the theme 'Support nurses and midwives.

Question 14

In demographic stages, when birth rate begins to decline and death rate further decreases, which stage is this called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In the demographic transition model, Stage III (late expanding) is characterized by a declining birth rate while the death rate continues to fall.

Question 15

What is the ultimate objective of Maternal and Child Health (MCH) services?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The overarching aim of MCH services is to ensure lifelong health for mothers and children; reductions in IMR and MMR are specific objectives toward that goal.

Question 16

What are the major determinants of health?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Environmental infrastructure—clean water, sanitation, and adequate housing—is a foundational determinant of population health and historically yields the largest improvements in health outcomes compared with services like screening or information alone.

Question 17

What is the main focus for organizing home visits?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Home visits in community health primarily aim to promote health and prevent disease through patient and family education and early intervention, not inspection, auditing other nurses, or conducting demographic surveys.

Question 18

Exclusive breastfeeding is the process of feeding the child breast milk only without any additional food or water for how long?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: WHO and AAP recommend exclusive breastfeeding for the first 6 months with no other foods or water; then add complementary foods.

Question 19

The nurse is teaching the mother of a 5 month-old about nutrition for her baby. Which of the following statements by the mother indicates the need for further teaching?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Honey should not be given to infants under 12 months due to the risk of infant botulism. The other statements are acceptable for a 5‑month‑old.

Question 20

The following relatives' health histories should be considered when reviewing a patient's health history?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Family history focuses on biologic relatives. Children's health histories are relevant to the patient’s genetic risk; adoptive parents and spouses are not biologically related.

Question 21

When inquiring about health maintenance activities during a health history, the nurse should ask about?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Health maintenance focuses on self-care behaviors that promote wellness and prevent disease, such as sleep, diet, exercise, and safety practices. Military service, domestic violence, and alcohol use are assessed elsewhere in the health history.

Question 22

Which of the following is not considered one of the 'Determinants of Health' variables that can influence the patient's health?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Standard determinants of health per the Lalonde framework include human biology, environment, lifestyle, and health services. 'Enculturalization' is not one of these categories.

Question 23

Which question is least useful in the assessment of a client with AIDS?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: For assessing an AIDS client, current risk behaviors impacting transmission and care are most relevant (drug use, number of partners, and condom/birth control method). Age at sexual debut provides little actionable information, making it the least useful.

Question 24

Reasons for high rate of HIV infection in women include?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: All listed factors—biologic susceptibility, economic vulnerabilities (transactional sex), and gender inequity—contribute to higher HIV risk for women; therefore, All is correct.

Question 25

The advantages of “Near miss” reviews include?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Near-miss reviews analyze severe complications that nearly resulted in death but were avoided. Since near-miss events occur more commonly than maternal deaths, they provide richer data for identifying systemic issues. The other statements are incorrect or overly limiting.

Question 26

What is the cornerstone for control of communicable disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Health education is the cornerstone of communicable disease control because it empowers individuals and communities to adopt preventive behaviors, recognize early signs of illness, and reduce transmission through informed decision-making. While rapid identification and treatment are important, they occur after transmission may already have begun. Education directly decreases incidence by strengthening primary prevention.

Question 27

When screening families for post-traumatic stress disorder following a major natural disaster, which type of disease prevention are psychiatric-mental health nurses practicing?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Screening aims to detect PTSD early among those at risk to enable prompt intervention, which is secondary prevention.

Question 28

A client tells the nurse that she plans to use the rhythm method of birth control. The nurse is aware that the success of the rhythm method depends on the?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The calendar (rhythm) method relies on predicting ovulation from prior cycle lengths; it is effective only when menstrual cycles are regular. Age, intercourse frequency, or temperature range are not determinants of success for the rhythm method (temperature tracking pertains to the basal body temperature method).

Question 29

A client with diabetes asks the nurse for advice regarding methods of birth control. Which method of birth control is most suitable for the client with diabetes?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Barrier methods are preferred for clients with diabetes. Oral contraceptives can worsen glucose control and increase vascular risks, and IUDs carry higher infection risk. The sponge is less effective and not preferred. A diaphragm provides effective contraception without systemic hormonal effects.

Question 30

The client using a diaphragm should be instructed to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Diaphragms should be stored in a cool place to prevent deterioration of the rubber. A is incorrect because a diaphragm must remain in at least 6 hours after intercourse and not more than about 24 hours. C is incorrect because refitting is recommended after a 10‑lb (or more) weight change. D is too broad—refitting is after abdominal/pelvic surgery, pregnancy, or significant weight change, not any surgery.

Question 31

What is the preventive method called that helps women avoid unwanted pregnancies?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Family planning encompasses counseling and use of contraceptive methods to prevent unintended pregnancies; it is the term for the preventive approach described.

Question 32

A camp nurse is applying sunscreen to a group of children enrolled in swim classes. Chemical sunscreens are most effective when applied?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Chemical sunscreens require time to be absorbed and bind to the stratum corneum; applying about 30 minutes before exposure maximizes protection.

Question 33

A client with hypertension has begun an aerobic exercise program. The nurse should tell the client that the recommended exercise regimen should begin slowly and build up to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: For hypertension, aerobic activity should progress to about 30–60 minutes on most days of the week. Among the choices, exercising 1 hour four times weekly is the only option that meets adequate duration and frequency; the others are too short or infrequent.

Question 34

During the nursing assessment, which data represent information concerning health beliefs?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Health beliefs are reflected in how a person maintains health, prevents illness, and restores health; assessing promotive, preventive, and restorative practices captures those beliefs. The other options relate to social history or medication use, not beliefs.

Question 35

What is the term for a preventive method used to help women avoid unwanted pregnancies?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A contraceptive method is the general term for methods used to prevent pregnancy; barrier method is just one type, and family planning is a broader program.

Question 36

Up to what age should breastfeeding be continued along with semi-solid and solid foods?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Guidance for infant feeding includes continuing breastfeeding with complementary foods into toddlerhood; some public health curricula advise continuation through about 18 months.

Question 37

Which teaching method is most appropriate to change a group of women's attitude towards the female child?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Role play actively engages participants in experiencing perspectives and feelings, targeting the affective domain, which is most effective for changing attitudes. Lecture or symposium are passive; discussion helps but is less powerful for attitude change than role play.

Question 38

The client is newly diagnosed with juvenile onset diabetes. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is a priority?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: For a newly diagnosed client with type 1 diabetes, teaching for safe self-management (insulin use, glucose monitoring, diet) is the immediate priority to prevent acute complications. Anxiety and pain are secondary; altered thought process is not expected.

Question 39

Which diet is associated with an increased risk of colorectal cancer?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Diets high in fat and refined (low-fiber) carbohydrates increase colorectal cancer risk by slowing intestinal transit and increasing carcinogen exposure; high-fiber, lower-fat diets are protective.

Question 40

The nurse discovers that the parents of a 2 year-old child continue to use an apnea monitor each night. The parents state that they remain concerned about the possible occurrence of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). In order to take appropriate action, the nurse must understand that?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: SIDS risk peaks at 2–4 months and about 95% of cases occur by 6 months; a 2-year-old is well beyond the high-risk period. Therefore statement D is correct.

Question 41

The nurse is teaching a 27 year-old client with asthma about management of their therapeutic regime. Which of the following statements would indicate the need for ADDITIONAL instruction?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Limiting exercise is not recommended for otherwise healthy clients with asthma; they should aim for normal activity using preventive strategies such as pre-exercise bronchodilators. The other statements reflect appropriate self-management.

Question 42

The nurse is teaching a group of adults about modifiable cardiac risk factors. Which of the following should the nurse focus on FIRST?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Smoking cessation produces the most immediate reduction in cardiovascular risk by improving oxygenation and reducing vasoconstriction and atherosclerosis; therefore it is the first priority among modifiable risk factors.

Question 43

The nurse is providing instructions for a client with asthma who is sensitive to house dust mites. Which of the following would be the MOST helpful in controlling asthma symptoms?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hot water (above ~130°F/54°C) kills house-dust mites and reduces allergen load; merely changing linens or using warm water/cold rinse does not eliminate mites. Air filters are less effective for mite control.

Question 44

Upon examining the mouth of a 3 year-old child, the nurse discovers that the teeth have chalky white-to-yellowish staining with pitting of the enamel. Which of the following conditions would most likely explain these findings?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Chalky white-to-yellow staining with enamel pitting is characteristic of dental fluorosis from excessive fluoride exposure.

Question 45

Which of the following is NOT an index of standard of living?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Standard of living is indexed by the quantity and quality of goods and services consumed and spending patterns; the type of family is a demographic characteristic, not a measure of standard of living.

Question 46

Which of the following is considered a natural contraceptive method?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Lactational amenorrhea (breastfeeding) is a natural family planning method; condoms are barrier, Copper is an IUD, and pills are hormonal.

Question 47

The nurse is instructing a 65 year-old female client diagnosed with osteoporosis. The MOST important instruction regarding exercise would be to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Weight-bearing exercises stimulate bone formation and help slow bone loss in osteoporosis, making them the most important exercise advice. Weight reduction or general muscle strengthening are secondary, and merely avoiding risky activities does not confer the same bone-preserving benefit.

Question 48

A couple trying to conceive asks the nurse when ovulation occurs. The woman reports a regular 32 day cycle. The BEST response by the nurse is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ovulation occurs about 14 days before the next menses. With a 32-day cycle, ovulation is around day 18; the fertile window is approximately days 17–19.

Question 49

Which of the following people would be at greatest risk for developing hypertension?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: African Americans have the highest prevalence and earlier onset of hypertension in the U.S., making the 45-year-old African American the greatest risk among the options despite age differences.

Question 50

The nurse is speaking at a community meeting about personal responsibility for health promotion. A participant asks about chiropractic treatment for illnesses. The BEST response focuses on?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Chiropractic care centers on diagnosing and treating illness through spinal adjustments/manipulation; the other options describe different complementary or rehabilitative modalities.

Train with a large NCLEX question bank and jump into a full exam-style simulator

Health Promotion-Disease Prevention NCLEX Practice Test

Continue Learning