Pharmacological Pain Management Practice Test 1
Pharmacological Pain Management NCLEX Practice Test
Pharmacological Pain Management, within the NCLEX test plan under Physiological Integrity → Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies, reflects the core knowledge domains and conceptual competencies directly related to what the exam evaluates. The targeted number of questions is 50; designed with realistic clinical scenarios and conceptual variety to help you identify both your strengths and improvement areas.
This test is the 1st part of the Pharmacological Pain Management section. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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Pharmacological Pain Management Practice Test 1
What is Diclofenac used for?
- Allergy
- Cough
- Appetite
- Pain
Explanation: Answer reason: Diclofenac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used to relieve mild to moderate pain, inflammation, and swelling. It works by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis, which reduces pain perception and inflammatory response.
The nurse is planning care for a client during the acute phase of a sickle cell vaso-occlusive crisis. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate?
- Fluid restriction: 1000 cc per day.
- Ambulate in the hallway four times a day.
- Administer analgesic therapy as ordered.
- Encourage increased caloric intake.
Explanation: Answer reason: An acute vaso-occlusive crisis causes severe ischemic pain. The priority in management is aggressive pain control with analgesics, along with hydration and rest. Fluid restriction is contraindicated; ambulation increases oxygen demand and pain; increased calories are not the immediate priority.
A client admitted with an above-the-knee amputation tells the nurse that his foot hurts and itches. Which response by the nurse indicates an understanding of phantom limb pain?
- The pain will go away in a few days.
- The pain is due to interruptions in the peripheral nervous system. I will get you some pain medication.
- The pain is psychological because your foot is no longer there.
- The pain and itching are due to the infection you had before the surgery.
Explanation: Answer reason: Phantom limb pain is real pain resulting from neural pathway changes after amputation; it should be acknowledged and treated with analgesics. It is not purely psychological, not necessarily transient, and not explained by a prior infection.
A client is admitted to the emergency room with renal calculi and is complaining of moderate to severe flank pain and nausea. The client's temperature is 100.8°F. The PRIORITY nursing goal for this client is?
- Maintain fluid and electrolyte balance
- Control nausea
- Manage pain
- Prevent urinary tract infections
Explanation: Answer reason: Renal colic causes severe, acute pain; the immediate priority is to relieve pain. The patient is otherwise stable, so pain management takes precedence over nausea control or infection prevention.
The doctor has ordered a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump for the client with chronic pain. The client asks the nurse if he can become overdosed on pain medication using this machine. The nurse demonstrates understanding of the PCA if she states?
- The machine will administer only the amount you need to control your pain without any action on your part.
- The machine has a locking device that prevents overdosing.
- The machine will administer a large dose every four hours to relieve your pain.
- The machine is set to deliver medication only if you need it.
Explanation: Answer reason: PCA pumps include a lockout interval that limits how often a dose may be delivered, reducing the risk of overdose. Options A and C misstate how PCA works, and D is vague and does not address the overdose concern.
Which of the following can be used to determine if a prescribed pain management therapy is effective for a nonverbal patient?
- Papanicolaou test
- Faces rating scale
- Braden's scale
- Apgar assessment tool
Explanation: Answer reason: Pain in nonverbal patients can be assessed using behavioral scales such as the Faces Rating Scale, allowing evaluation of analgesic effectiveness. The Pap test screens for cervical cancer, the Braden Scale assesses pressure ulcer risk, and the Apgar evaluates newborn status.
The nurse is caring for an 81-year-old client with colorectal cancer. The client's pain has been managed until now with acetaminophen with codeine. Because of increased pain, the order is changed to morphine. The nurse recognizes that this order is?
- Inappropriate because of potential respiratory depression.
- Appropriate, despite the expected effect of mental confusion.
- Inappropriate and demonstrates poor knowledge of pain control.
- Appropriate around-the-clock pain management
Explanation: Answer reason: Opioids like morphine are appropriate for severe, persistent cancer pain, even in elderly clients, with careful monitoring for side effects.
When managing pain caused by joint or muscle bleeding in patients with hemophilia A, the first strategy that should be used is?
- Celecoxib
- Acetaminophen plus codeine
- Acetaminophen
- Nimesulide
Explanation: Answer reason: NSAIDs (e.g., nimesulide, celecoxib) can increase bleeding risk in hemophilia. First-line analgesic is acetaminophen; opioids are reserved for more severe pain.
The nurse is performing an assessment of an elderly client who has had a total hip repair. Based on this assessment, the nurse decides to medicate the client with an analgesic. Which finding most likely prompted the nurse to administer the analgesic?
- The client's blood pressure is 130/86.
- The client is unable to concentrate.
- The client's pupils are dilated.
- The client grimaces during care.
Explanation: Answer reason: Facial grimacing during care is a direct, observable indicator of pain and best justifies administering an analgesic. The other findings are nonspecific; BP 130/86 is within normal limits.
As part of chemotherapy education, the nurse teaches a female client about the risk of bleeding and self-care during the period of greatest bone marrow suppression (the nadir). The nurse understands that further teaching is needed if the client makes which statement?
- I should avoid blowing my nose.
- I may need a platelet transfusion if my platelet count is too low.
- I'm going to take an aspirin for my headache as soon as I get home.
- I will count the number of pads and tampons I use while menstruating.
Explanation: Answer reason: Aspirin impairs platelet aggregation, increasing bleeding risk during thrombocytopenia caused by chemotherapy. The client’s plan to take aspirin shows a lack of understanding of safety precautions during the nadir period.
Drugs of choice to control pain in acute pancreatitis?
- NSAIDs
- Codeine sulfate
- Meperidine
- Morphine
Explanation: Answer reason: Meperidine has been traditionally preferred for acute pancreatitis pain because it is less likely than morphine to cause sphincter of Oddi spasm; NSAIDs or codeine are inadequate for severe pain.
A client who is admitted with an above-the-knee amputation tells the nurse that his foot hurts and itches. Which response by the nurse indicates understanding of phantom limb pain?
- "The pain will go away in a few days."
- "The pain is due to peripheral nervous system interruptions. I will get you some pain medication."
- "The pain is psychological because your foot is no longer there."
- "The pain and itching are due to the infection you had before the surgery."
Explanation: Answer reason: Phantom limb pain is real neuropathic pain from nerve pathway disruption and should be treated; it is not purely psychological, not due to infection, and may persist beyond a few days.
During the early postoperative period, a client who has undergone a cataract extraction complains of nausea and severe eye pain over the operative site. What should be the initial nursing action?
- Call the health care provider (HCP).
- Reassure the client that this is normal.
- Turn the client onto his or her operative side.
- Administer the prescribed pain medication and antiemetic
Explanation: Answer reason: Severe eye pain and nausea after cataract surgery can indicate increased intraocular pressure and risk of hemorrhage. The priority initial action is to relieve pain and stop nausea/vomiting by administering the prescribed analgesic and antiemetic; notify the HCP if not relieved. Reassurance or turning to the operative side is inappropriate.
A client with chronic pain is being treated with opioid administration via epidural route. Which medication would it be most important to have available due to a possible complication of this pain relief procedure?
- (Ketorolac) Toradol
- (Naloxone) Narcan
- (Diphenhydramine) Benadryl
- (Promethazine) Phenergan
Explanation: Answer reason: Epidural opioids can cause life-threatening respiratory depression; naloxone is the opioid antagonist needed for rapid reversal. The other options treat pain, allergy, or nausea but do not reverse opioid toxicity.
Which medication should the nurse administer prior to a dressing change for a client with a 27% total body surface area burn consisting of second- and third-degree burns?
- Hydromorphone 1 mg intravenous (IV) push
- Oxycodone extended-release (ER) mg by mouth (PO)
- Ketorolac 15 mg intravenous (IV) push
- Fentanyl transdermal patch 12 mcg/hr
Explanation: Answer reason: Burn dressing changes cause severe procedural pain; the most appropriate option is a rapid-onset, short-acting IV opioid. Hydromorphone IV push provides fast, potent analgesia.
What action should the nurse take to ensure a client scheduled for hydrotherapy for a burn dressing change is comfortable during the procedure?
- Ensure that the client is appropriately dressed
- Administer an opioid analgesic 30 to 60 minutes before therapy
- Schedule the therapy at a time when the client generally takes a nap
- Assign an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to stay with the client during the procedure
Explanation: Answer reason: Hydrotherapy and burn dressing changes are very painful; the nurse should premedicate with an opioid 30–60 minutes prior so analgesia peaks during the procedure. Other options do not address pain control
A client with chronic pain reports inadequate relief despite receiving prescribed analgesics; which intervention should the nurse prioritize?
- Increase the dosage of the current medication
- Perform comprehensive pain assessment
- Suggest alternative therapies like acupuncture
- Administer a sedative to help the client relax
Explanation: Answer reason: Assessment comes first. A thorough pain assessment is needed to determine characteristics, causes, and effectiveness of current therapy before changing dosages, adding sedatives, or suggesting alternatives.
What is the priority nursing goal for a client admitted with renal calculi who is experiencing moderate to severe flank pain and nausea with a temperature of 100.8°F?
- Maintain fluid and electrolyte balance
- Control nausea
- Manage pain
- Prevent urinary tract infection
Explanation: Answer reason: Renal calculi typically cause acute, severe colicky flank pain. The immediate nursing priority is to relieve pain; nausea control, hydration, and infection prevention are important but secondary. A low-grade fever does not supersede the urgent need for analgesia.
A client is receiving chemotherapy and reports mouth sores. What nursing intervention is appropriate for managing chemotherapy-induced stomatitis?
- Administering a topical anesthetic
- Providing hot and spicy foods
- Encouraging vigorous tooth brushing
- Administering aspirin for pain relief
Explanation: Answer reason: Topical anesthetics (e.g., viscous lidocaine) relieve oral pain from chemotherapy-induced stomatitis. Hot/spicy foods and vigorous brushing irritate mucosa, and aspirin increases bleeding risk in myelosuppressed clients.
A postoperative client is experiencing severe pain. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse?
- Administering pain medication as ordered
- Waiting for the client to request pain relief
- Encouraging distraction techniques
- Documenting the client's pain level
Explanation: Answer reason: For severe postoperative pain, the priority is to promptly administer prescribed analgesics. Distraction and documentation are adjuncts but should not delay pharmacologic relief, and waiting for the client to request pain relief is inappropriate.
A client is admitted with acute pancreatitis. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- Administering pain medication
- Monitoring vital signs every 4 hours
- Providing a high-fiber diet
- Administering proton pump inhibitors
Explanation: Answer reason: Acute pancreatitis causes severe abdominal pain; the immediate priority is analgesia. Vital signs q4h is routine, high-fiber diet is inappropriate (patient is typically NPO), and PPIs may be ordered but are not the priority nursing intervention.
Combination products containing opioids and non-opioids are commonly used for the management of moderate to severe what type of pain?
- Neuropathic pain
- Acute pain
- Inflammatory pain
- Migraine
Explanation: Answer reason: Opioid–nonopioid combination analgesics (e.g., hydrocodone/acetaminophen) are standard for moderate to severe acute pain such as postoperative or injury pain. Neuropathic pain responds better to anticonvulsants/antidepressants, and migraines require migraine-specific therapy.
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of renal calculi. The nurse should give priority to?
- Initiating an intravenous infusion
- Encouraging oral fluids
- Administering pain medication
- Straining the urine
Explanation: Answer reason: Renal colic causes severe acute pain; the immediate priority is analgesia. Hydration and urine straining are important but follow after pain control.
A client complains of sharp, stabbing pain in the right lower quadrant that is graded as level 8 on a scale of 10. The nurse knows that pain of this severity can best be managed using?
- Aleve (naproxen sodium)
- Tylenol with codeine (acetaminophen with codeine)
- Toradol (ketorolac)
- Morphine sulfate (morphine sulfate)
Explanation: Answer reason: An 8/10 pain score indicates severe pain; first-line management is a strong opioid. Morphine provides superior analgesia for severe acute pain compared with NSAIDs or acetaminophen with codeine.
The physician has ordered an injection of morphine for a client with post-operative pain. Before administering the medication, it is essential that the nurse assess the client's?
- Heart rate
- Respirations
- Temperature
- Blood pressure
Explanation: Answer reason: Opioid analgesics like morphine can cause respiratory depression. Assess respiratory rate and depth before administration and hold if inadequate.
The doctor has ordered Percocet (oxycodone) for a client following abdominal surgery. The primary objective of nursing care for the client receiving an opiate analgesic is?
- Preventing addiction
- Alleviating pain
- Facilitating mobility
- Preventing nausea
Explanation: Answer reason: The primary goal of opioid analgesic therapy after surgery is effective pain relief; preventing side effects or addiction is secondary.
Which tablet is used for pain?
- Loperamide
- Naproxen
- Ciprofloxacin
- Cetirizine
Explanation: Answer reason: Naproxen is an NSAID analgesic used to relieve pain. Loperamide is an antidiarrheal, ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic, and cetirizine is an antihistamine.
Prolonged use of opioid analgesics may lead to the development of which condition?
- Allergy
- Tolerance
- Nausea
- Anemia
Explanation: Answer reason: Chronic opioid use leads to pharmacologic tolerance, requiring higher doses for the same effect. Allergy is not dose-duration dependent, nausea is an acute side effect, and anemia is unrelated.
You are teaching a client about the client Controlled Analgesia (PCA) planned for post-operative care. Which indicates FURTHER teaching may be needed by the client?
- "I will be receiving continuous doses of medication."
- "I should call the nurse before I take additional doses."
- "I will call for assistance if my pain is not relieved."
- "The machine will prevent an overdose."
Explanation: Answer reason: With PCA, the client self-administers demand doses within programmed limits and does not need to call the nurse before pressing the button. They should notify the nurse if pain is uncontrolled; lockout features help prevent overdose.
A post-operative client has a prescription for acetaminophen with codeine. The nurse recognizes that a primary effect of this combination is to?
- Enhance pain relief
- Minimize side effects
- Prevent drug tolerance
- Speed onset of action
Explanation: Answer reason: Combining a non-opioid (acetaminophen) with an opioid (codeine) provides additive/synergistic analgesia, resulting in greater pain relief than either alone. It does not primarily minimize side effects, prevent tolerance, or speed onset.
Which of the following statements is both a correctly stated nursing diagnosis and a high priority for a 65-year-old client immediately following a modified radical mastectomy and axillary dissection?
- Anxiety related to the mastectomy.
- Impaired skin integrity related to the mastectomy.
- Pain related to surgical incision.
- Self-care deficit related to dressing changes.
Explanation: Answer reason: Acute postoperative pain is the highest physiological priority because uncontrolled pain can impair ventilation, mobility, and wound healing. Immediate pharmacologic pain management is required after major surgery.
The nurse is caring for a client with renal calculi. Which physician order would be a PRIORITY?
- Morphine sulfate as client controlled analgesia
- Push oral fluids and keep vein open
- Continuous warm compresses to the flank area
- Intravenous antibiotics
Explanation: Answer reason: Renal calculi cause severe renal colic; the immediate priority is rapid pain relief. PCA morphine provides prompt analgesia. Fluids and warm compresses are supportive but not first priority, and antibiotics are only indicated if infection is present.
A nurse admits a client transferred from the emergency room. The client, diagnosed with a myocardial infarction, is complaining of substernal chest pain, diaphoresis and nausea. The FIRST action by the nurse should be?
- Order an EKG
- Administer pain medication as ordered
- Start an IV
- Measure vital signs
Explanation: Answer reason: In acute MI, unrelieved pain increases sympathetic tone and myocardial oxygen demand, risking extension of infarction. Priority is to relieve pain promptly (e.g., morphine/nitro) per order. A nurse does not "order" an EKG; starting an IV and taking vitals are important but not the first priority over pain control.
In order to enhance a client's response to medication for chest pain from acute angina, the nurse should emphasize?
- Learning relaxation techniques
- Limiting alcohol use
- Eating smaller meals
- Avoiding passive smoke
Explanation: Answer reason: Reducing anxiety through relaxation decreases sympathetic stimulation and can improve the effectiveness of angina pain medications such as nitroglycerin.
A 35 year-old client with sickle cell crisis is talking on the telephone but stops as the nurse enters the room to request something for pain. The nurse should?
- Administer a placebo
- Encourage increased fluid intake
- Administer the prescribed analgesia
- Recommend relaxation exercises for pain control
Explanation: Answer reason: Sickle cell crisis causes severe pain that should be treated promptly with prescribed analgesics. Placebos are unethical; hydration and relaxation are adjuncts but not the priority when the client requests pain relief.
The nurse planning care for a 12 year-old child with sickle cell disease in a vaso-occlusive crisis of the elbow should include which one of the following as a PRIORITY?
- Limit fluids
- Client controlled analgesia
- Cold compresses to elbow
- Passive range of motion exercise
Explanation: Answer reason: Vaso-occlusive crisis causes severe ischemic pain; priority is pain relief. A 12-year-old can safely use PCA. Fluids should be encouraged, cold causes vasoconstriction, and ROM is avoided during acute pain.
Pethidine injection is used for?
- Gonorrhea
- Cystitis
- Tuberculosis
- Pain
Explanation: Answer reason: Pethidine (meperidine) is an opioid agonist used for the relief of moderate to severe acute pain, including postoperative and obstetric pain. It acts primarily at mu-opioid receptors to produce analgesia. It has no antimicrobial activity, so it does not treat infections such as gonorrhea, cystitis, or tuberculosis, which require specific antimicrobial therapy.
Which client is most likely to receive opioids for extended periods of time?
- A client with fibromyalgia
- A client with phantom limb pain
- A client with progressive pancreatic cancer
- A client with trigeminal neuralgia
Explanation: Answer reason: Cancer-related pain, particularly from progressive pancreatic cancer, often requires long-term opioid therapy due to ongoing tissue invasion and high nociceptive burden; this aligns with the WHO analgesic ladder for cancer pain. Fibromyalgia is better managed with non-opioid agents such as SNRIs or pregabalin and nonpharmacologic modalities. Phantom limb pain and trigeminal neuralgia typically respond to adjuvants like anticonvulsants or TCAs rather than chronic opioids. Therefore, the client with progressive cancer is the most likely to need extended opioid treatment.
A nurse is caring for a patient who is recovering from surgery and is in pain at the incision site. The nurse has administered some medications to help control the patient's pain, but she holds off from administering more because she does not want the patient's respiratory rate to drop. Which is another example of a reason why some nurses fail to utilize appropriate pain management techniques when caring for a patient in pain?
- The nurse does not want to take time to gather more pain medications
- The nurse is afraid the patient may become addicted to the medicine
- The nurse does not know if another dose of medication would work
- The nurse does not understand that she can give more medications
Explanation: Answer reason: Undertreatment of pain commonly stems from misconceptions such as fear of patient addiction to analgesics, especially opioids. Evidence shows the risk of addiction in appropriately treated acute pain is low, and careful monitoring can mitigate adverse effects. Such fears can lead to withholding indicated analgesia and inadequate pain control.
A postoperative client receiving IV morphine reports increasing drowsiness and needs frequent reminders to stay awake. Respiratory rate is 10/min. What is the nurse’s best first action?
- Encourage deep breathing exercises
- Hold the next opioid dose and notify the provider
- Administer naloxone immediately
- Continue morphine and monitor again in one hour
Explanation: Answer reason: Early opioid-induced sedation + RR decrease (10/min) requires **withholding the opioid** and contacting the provider. Naloxone is reserved for more severe respiratory depression or unresponsiveness.
A client with chronic osteoarthritis takes ibuprofen daily for pain. Which finding requires the nurse to intervene?
- Occasional mild stomach upset
- Taking the medication with food
- History of peptic ulcer disease
- Using warm compresses with the medication
Explanation: Answer reason: NSAIDs increase gastric irritation and bleeding risk. A **history of peptic ulcer disease** is a major red flag requiring alternative pain therapy.
A client with diabetic neuropathy reports burning, shooting leg pain that is not relieved by acetaminophen. Which medication class is most appropriate to discuss with the provider?
- Opioids such as morphine
- Adjuvant medications like gabapentin or pregabalin
- Benzodiazepines for muscle relaxation
- High-dose NSAIDs for nerve inflammation
Explanation: Answer reason: Neuropathic pain responds best to **adjuvant agents** such as gabapentin or pregabalin. Acetaminophen, NSAIDs, and opioids have limited effectiveness for nerve pain.
A postoperative client using a PCA pump reports good pain relief but feels very sleepy. The family asks if they can press the PCA button for the client while the client rests. What is the nurse’s best response?
- “Yes, you may press it when they need it.”
- “No, only the client should press the PCA button to avoid overdose.”
- “Press it only if the client says their pain is severe.”
- “Use the button every hour to maintain pain control.”
Explanation: Answer reason: Only the client may activate PCA dosing. Family-activated dosing increases overdose and respiratory depression risk because it bypasses the client’s natural sedation limit.
A client with cancer taking long-acting morphine reports new severe pain rated 9/10. The nurse reviews the orders and finds a short-acting opioid available. What is the appropriate action?
- Wait until the next scheduled long-acting dose
- Offer a warm compress instead of medication
- Administer the prescribed short-acting opioid for breakthrough pain
- Contact the provider to discontinue all opioids
Explanation: Answer reason: Clients on long-acting opioids often require **short-acting agents** for sudden flares of severe pain. Withholding rescue doses results in inadequate pain control.
A client receiving opioids for postoperative pain reports nausea and itching but states the pain relief is effective. What is the nurse’s best action?
- Stop the opioid immediately
- Notify the provider and administer prescribed antiemetics or antihistamines
- Switch to NSAIDs instead of opioids
- Reduce the opioid dose by half without provider approval
Explanation: Answer reason: Opioid side effects such as nausea or itching are common and often manageable with adjunct medications. Stopping or altering the opioid without provider direction may compromise pain control.
A client receiving IV hydromorphone reports persistent pain rated 8/10 despite scheduled dosing. The nurse notes the client is alert with stable vital signs. What is the nurse’s best action?
- Wait for the next scheduled dose
- Request a provider order to titrate the dose upward based on pain response
- Give an additional dose without an order because the pain is severe
- Switch the client to oral opioids immediately
Explanation: Answer reason: When opioids are ineffective and the client is stable, pain management requires **provider-guided titration** to reach therapeutic effect. Administering extra doses without an order is unsafe, and withholding titration prolongs suffering.
A postoperative client receives acetaminophen, a low-dose opioid, and a regional nerve block. The client asks why so many different types of pain treatments are needed. What is the nurse’s best explanation?
- “Using multiple methods reduces your anxiety about surgery.”
- “This approach targets pain from different pathways, improving relief with fewer opioid needs.”
- “It is hospital policy to give several medications to all surgical patients.”
- “Each medication works only a little, so we combine them to cover the gap.”
Explanation: Answer reason: Multimodal pain therapy uses **different analgesic mechanisms** to enhance relief while minimizing opioid requirements and side effects. This is evidence-based and improves outcomes.
An 82-year-old client with chronic pain is prescribed an opioid. Which nursing action is most important to reduce risk of adverse effects?
- Encourage rapid titration to control pain quickly
- Start with lower doses and monitor for increased sedation or confusion
- Avoid non-opioid options because they are poorly tolerated in older adults
- Give all doses at night to avoid daytime drowsiness
Explanation: Answer reason: Older adults have reduced clearance and increased sensitivity to opioids. **Start low, go slow** is the safety principle—with close monitoring for CNS depression, confusion, and falls.
A client using a transdermal fentanyl patch for chronic cancer pain reports that the patch “isn’t working as well today.” The nurse notes that the patch is still in place but the client has a low-grade fever. What is the nurse’s best response?
- Replace the patch immediately with a higher-dose patch
- Remove the patch until the fever resolves
- Explain that fever can increase fentanyl absorption and assess for signs of toxicity
- Apply a heating pad over the patch to enhance absorption
Explanation: Answer reason: Heat and fever both increase peripheral vasodilation, which **raises fentanyl absorption** from transdermal patches. This can lead to toxicity (sedation, confusion, respiratory depression). The nurse must assess first—not increase dose or add heat.
A client receiving scheduled opioid therapy reports constipation despite increasing fluid intake. Which intervention should the nurse implement to manage opioid-related constipation most effectively?
- Advise the client to take fiber supplements only when symptoms worsen
- Reduce the opioid dose by half to prevent constipation
- Encourage the client to wait for the body to adjust to the medication
- Add a stimulant laxative or stool softener as part of the routine bowel regimen
Explanation: Answer reason: Opioid-induced constipation does **not** improve with time and requires a **scheduled bowel regimen**, typically including stimulant laxatives or stool softeners. Fluid/fiber alone is insufficient, and dose reduction cannot be done without provider direction.
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